[MCQ] Disorders of Absorption- Part 1

I. Start the exam by click the “Start” button

Disorders of Absorption- Part 1

Please wait while the activity loads.
If this activity does not load, try refreshing your browser. Also, this page requires javascript. Please visit using a browser with javascript enabled.

If loading fails, click here to try again

Start

Congratulations - you have completed Disorders of Absorption- Part 1. You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%. Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%

Your answers are highlighted below.

Question 1

Intestinal absorption is increased in ?

A	Cirrhosis
B	Jejunal diverticulosis
C	Hemochromatosis
D	Crohn’s disease

Question 2

Intestinal absorption is increased in ?

A	Cirrhosis
B	Jejunal diverticulosis
C	Wilson’s disease
D	Crohn’s disease

Question 2 Explanation:

Only clinical malabsorption situations in which absorption is increased are hemochromatosis & Wilson’s disease, where absorption of iron and copper is increased respectively

Question 3

Steatorrhea is defined as an increase in stool fat excretion of how much of dietary fat intake ?

A	> 2 %
B	> 4 %
C	> 5 %
D	> 6 %

Question 3 Explanation:

Most malabsorption syndrome disorders are associated with an increase in stool fat excretion of >6% of dietary fat intake (steatorrhea)

Question 4

Malabsorption disorder not associated with steatorrhea is ?

A	Primary lactase deficiency
B	Celiac sprue
C	Abetalipoproteinemia
D	Intestinal lymphangiectasia

Question 5

Malabsorption disorder not associated with steatorrhea is ?

A	Tropical sprue
B	Celiac sprue
C	Pernicious anemia
D	Bacterial overgrowth syndrome

Question 5 Explanation:

Most, but not all, malabsorption syndromes are associated with steatorrhea. Primary lactase deficiency and pernicious anemia are not associated with steatorrhea

Question 6

In a western-type diet, diarrhea as a sign is a quantitative increase in stool water or weight of ?

A	> 100 - 200 gram / day
B	> 200 - 225 gram / day
C	> 300 - 425 gram / day
D	> 400 - 500 gram / day

Question 6 Explanation:

Diarrhea as a sign is a quantitative increase in stool weight of >200–225 mL gram per day, when a western-type diet is consumed.

Question 7

Which of the following diarrhea would undoubtedly cease during a prolonged fast ?

A	Enterotoxin-induced traveler’s diarrhea
B	Primary lactase deficiency
C	VIPoma
D	All of the above

Question 7 Explanation:

Diarrhea secondary to lactose malabsorption in primary lactase deficiency ceases during a prolonged fast

Question 8

Stool osmolality is ?

A	250 mosmol/kg H2O
B	275 mosmol/kg H2O
C	300 mosmol/kg H2O
D	325 mosmol/kg H2O

Question 8 Explanation:

Stool osmotic gap = 2 x (stool Na + stool K). Stool osmolality is assumed to be 300 mosmol/kg H2O

Question 9

Fecal osmotic gap is calculated as ?

A	90 - 2([Na+] + [K+])
B	190 - 2([Na+] + [K+])
C	290 - 2([Na+] + [K+])
D	390 - 2([Na+] + [K+])

Question 10

The lengths of the small intestine and colon are ?

A	~200 cm and ~50 cm, respectively
B	~250 cm and ~70 cm, respectivel
C	~300 cm and ~80 cm, respectively
D	~400 cm and ~100 cm, respectively

Question 11

Effective functional surface area of intestines is about how many times greater than that of a hollow tube ?

A	200 times
B	400 times
C	600 times
D	800 times

Question 11 Explanation:

Effective functional surface area is about 600-fold greater than that of a hollow tube due to the presence of folds, villi (in small intestine), and microvilli

Question 12

Intestinal mucosa synthesizes & secretes which of the following immunoglobulin ?

A	Secretory IgA
B	Secretory IgG
C	Secretory IgM
D	Secretory IgE

Question 12 Explanation:

Intestinal mucosa synthesizes and secretes secretory IgA

Question 13

Daily salivary, gastric, pancreatic, biliary, and intestinal fluid amounts to ?

A	3 to 4 L/day
B	5 to 6 L/day
C	6 to 7 L/day
D	7 to 8 L/day

Question 13 Explanation:

The intestine absorbs ~7 to 8 liters of fluid daily, comprising dietary fluid intake (1 to 2 L/day) and salivary, gastric, pancreatic, biliary, and intestinal fluid (6 to 7 L/day)

Question 14

Which of the following statements is false ?

A	Villi are present in small intestine & colon
B	Nutrient digestion & absorption occurs in small intestine but not in colon
C	Digestive hydrolytic enzymes are present in brush border of villus epithelial cells
D	Secretory function is present in crypts of both small & large intestine

Question 14 Explanation:

Villi are present in small intestine but are absent in colon

Question 15

Na+, K+ - ATPase in the Na+ pump is located on ?

A	Apical membrane
B	Basolateral membrane
C	Basomedial membrane
D	All of the above

Question 15 Explanation:

Na+ pump is located on the basolateral membrane, which expels Na+ and maintains a low intracellular Na+ through Na+,K+ - ATPase.

Question 16

Transport protein SGLT is located on ?

A	Apical membrane
B	Basolateral membrane
C	Basomedial membrane
D	All of the above

Question 16 Explanation:

Active glucose (monosaccharide) absorption & glucose-stimulated Na+ absorption require both apical membrane transport protein SGLT (sodium/glucose cotransporter) & basolateral Na+,K+ - ATPase. A competitive inhibitor of SGLT, phlorizin exerts a hypoglycemic effect in diabetics. Gene for SGLT is SLC5A

Question 17

Which of the following about bile acids is false ?

A	Primary bile acids are synthesized in liver from cholesterol
B	Secondary bile acids are synthesized from primary bile acids
C	Cholic & deoxycholic acids are primary bile acids
D	Lithocholic acid is a secondary bile acid

Question 17 Explanation:

Bile acids are not present in the diet but are synthesized in liver. Primary bile acids are synthesized in liver from cholesterol and secondary bile acids are synthesized from primary bile acids in intestine by colonic bacterial enzymes. Primary bile acids are cholic acid & chenodeoxycholic acid. Secondary bile acids are deoxycholic acid and lithocholic acid.

Question 18

What quantity of bile acids are synthesized in liver every day ?

A	200 mg
B	300 mg
C	400 mg
D	500 mg

Question 18 Explanation:

About 500 mg bile acids are synthesized in liver daily, conjugated to either taurine or glycine to form tauro-conjugated or glyco-conjugated bile acids, respectively, and then secreted into duodenum as bile.

Question 19

Primary functions of bile acids is ?

A	To promote bile flow
B	To solubilize cholesterol & phospholipid in gall bladder
C	To enhance dietary lipid digestion & absorption
D	All of the above

Question 19 Explanation:

Primary functions of bile acids are to promote bile flow, to solubilize cholesterol and phospholipid in gallbladder and to enhance dietary lipid digestion and absorption by forming mixed micelles in proximal small intestine

Question 20

Bile acids are primarily absorbed “actively” in ?

A	Duodenum
B	Jejunum
C	Jejunum
D	Colon

Question 20 Explanation:

Bile acids are primarily absorbed by an active, Na+-dependent process exclusively in ileum.

Question 21

Secondary bile acids are formed in ?

A	Duodenum
B	Jejunum
C	Ileum
D	Colon

Question 21 Explanation:

Colonic bacterial enzymes dehydroxylate bile acids to secondary bile acids

Question 22

Bile acid synthesis is autoregulated by ?

A	7 α-hydroxylase
B	7β-hydroxylase
C	7 δ-hydroxylase
D	7 γ-hydroxylase

Question 23

The bile acid pool size is approximately ?

A	4 grams
B	8 grams
C	12 grams
D	16 grams

Once you are finished, click the button below. Any items you have not completed will be marked incorrect. Get Results

There are 23 questions to complete.

←

List

→

Return

Shaded items are complete.

1	2	3	4	5
6	7	8	9	10
11	12	13	14	15
16	17	18	19	20
21	22	23	End

Return

See all quizzes of Peptic Ulcer Disease at here:

I. Start the exam by click the “Start” button

Peptic Ulcer Disease- Part 5

Please wait while the activity loads.
If this activity does not load, try refreshing your browser. Also, this page requires javascript. Please visit using a browser with javascript enabled.

If loading fails, click here to try again

Start

Congratulations - you have completed Peptic Ulcer Disease- Part 5. You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%. Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%

Your answers are highlighted below.

Question 1

Organs involved in MEN I syndrome are all except ?

A	Parathyroid
B	Thyroid
C	Pancreas
D	Pituitary

Question 1 Explanation:

MEN I syndrome (autosomal dominant) involves parathyroid glands (80-90%), pancreas (40-80%), and pituitary gland (30-60%).

Question 2

Genetic defect in MEN I is in ?

A	Short arm of chromosome 11
B	Long arm of chromosome 11
C	Short arm of chromosome 12
D	Long arm of chromosome 12

Question 2 Explanation:

The genetic defect in MEN I is in the long arm of chromosome 11 (11q11-q13)

Question 3

Distinguishing feature between MEN I & sprodic ZES is ?

A	Incidence of gastric carcinoid tumor
B	Size, number & location of gastrinoma
C	Disease free period after surgery
D	All of the above

Question 3 Explanation:

Gastrinomas tend to be smaller, multiple, and located in the duodenal wall more often than is seen in patients with sporadic ZES. An additional distinguishing feature in ZES patients with MEN I is the higher incidence of gastric carcinoid tumor development (as compared to patients with sporadic gastrinomas). Gastrinomas tend to be smaller, multiple, and located in the duodenal wall more often than is seen in patients with sporadic ZES.

Question 4

Patients with gastrinoma have gastrin level more than ?

A	25 pg/mL
B	50 pg/mL
C	100 pg/mL
D	150 pg/mL

Question 4 Explanation:

Fasting gastrin levels are <150 pg/mL. All gastrinoma patients have a gastrin level >150 - 200 pg/mL

Question 5

Elevated fasting gastrin level are due to all except ?

A	Hypochlorhydria
B	Renal insufficiency
C	Diabetes mellitus
D	Hypertension

Question 6

Elevated fasting gastrin level are due to all except ?

A	Rheumotoid arthritis
B	Ankylosing arthritis
C	Pheochromocytoma
D	Vitiligo

Question 6 Explanation:

Elevated fasting gastrin level are due to gastric hypochlorhydria or achlorhydria, renal insufficiency, massive small-bowel obstruction, rheumatoid arthritis, vitiligo, diabetes mellitus & pheochromocytoma

Question 7

Patients with gastrinoma have a BAO level more than ?

A	4 meq/hour
B	8 meq/hour
C	12 meq/hour
D	15 meq/hour

Question 8

What value of BAO / MAO is highly suggestive of ZES ?

A	< 0.3
B	< 0.6
C	> 0.3
D	> 0.6

Question 8 Explanation:

BAO/MAO ratio >0.6 is highly suggestive of ZES, but a ratio <0.6 does not exclude the diagnosis

Question 9

What level of basal gastric pH excludes gastrinoma ?

A	>= 1
B	>= 1.5
C	>= 2
D	>= 3

Question 9 Explanation:

A basal gastric pH >=3 virtually excludes a gastrinoma.

Question 10

Which of the following is the most sensitive & specific gastrin provocative test ?

A	Secretin stimulation test
B	Calcium infusion study
C	Standard meal test
D	None of the above

Question 10 Explanation:

Most sensitive & specific gastrin provocative test for diagnosis of gastrinoma is secretin study. Increase in gastrin of >=120 pg within 15 minutes of secretin injection has a sensitivity & specificity of >90% for ZES. Calcium infusion study is less sensitive & specific with greater potential for adverse effects.

Question 11

Which of the following tests has maximum sensitivity in detecting primary gastrinoma ?

A	Selective arterial secretin injection (SASI)
B	Octreoscan imaging with 111In-pentreotide
C	Endoscopic ultrasonography (EUS)
D	Magnetic resonance imaging

Question 11 Explanation:

Sensitivity of EUS in Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome is 80 - 100%.

Question 12

Which of the following is a favorable prognostic indicator in ZES ?

A	Primary duodenal wall tumor
B	Isolated lymph node tumor
C	Undetectable tumor upon surgical exploration
D	All of the above

Question 12 Explanation:

In ZES, favorable prognostic indicators include primary duodenal wall tumors, isolated lymph node tumor, and undetectable tumor upon surgical exploration. Poor outcome indicators are shorter disease duration; higher gastrin levels (>10,000 pg/mL); large pancreatic primary tumors (>3 cm); metastatic disease to lymph nodes, liver, and bone and Cushing’s syndrome. Rapid growth of hepatic metastases is also predictive of poor outcome

Question 13

Procedure that provides the lowest rates of peptic ulcer recurrence but has highest complication rate is ?

A	Vagotomy
B	Billroth I
C	Vagotomy in combination with antrectomy
D	Billroth II

Question 14

Cushing’s ulcer refers to ?

A	Stress ulceration after head trauma
B	Stress ulceration after severe burns
C	Stress ulceration after mechanical ventilation
D	Stress ulceration after sepsis

Question 14 Explanation:

Elevated gastric acid secretion may be noted in patients with stress ulceration after head trauma (Cushing’s ulcer).

Question 15

Curling’s ulcer refers to ?

A	Stress ulceration after head trauma
B	Stress ulceration after severe burns
C	Stress ulceration after mechanical ventilation
D	Stress ulceration after sepsis

Question 15 Explanation:

Elevated gastric acid secretion may be noted in patients with stress ulceration after severe burns (Curling’s ulcer).

Question 16

To avoid stress ulceration, gastric pH should be maintained at ?

A	> 1.5
B	> 2.0
C	> 2.5
D	> 3.5

Question 16 Explanation:

Maintenance of gastric pH >3.5 with continuous infusion of H2 blockers or liquid antacids administered every 2–3 hours are viable options to avoid stress ulceration.

Question 17

Treatment of choice for stress ulcer prophylaxis is ?

A	H2 blocker
B	PPI
C	Sucralfate
D	All of the above

Question 17 Explanation:

PPIs are the treatment of choice for stress ulcer prophylaxis

Question 18

‘Phlegmonous gastritis’ refers to ?

A	Viral infection of stomach
B	Bacterial infection of stomach
C	Vascular congestion of stomach
D	All of the above

Question 18 Explanation:

Bacterial infection of the stomach or phlegmonous gastritis although rare is a potentially lifethreatening disorder characterized by marked & diffuse acute inflammatory infiltrates of entire gastric wall, at times accompanied by necrosis.

Question 19

Which of the following are affected by Phlegmonous gastritis ?

A	Elderly individuals
B	Alcoholics
C	AIDS patients
D	All of the above

Question 19 Explanation:

Elderly individuals, alcoholics, and AIDS patients may be affected by Phlegmonous gastritis

Question 20

Organism associated with Phlegmonous gastritis is ?

A	Staphylococci
B	Escherichia coli
C	Haemophilus
D	All of the above

Question 20 Explanation:

Organisms associated with Phlegmonous gastritis include streptococci, staphylococci, Escherichia coli, Proteus, and Haemophilus species.

Question 21

The final stage of chronic gastritis is ?

A	Superficial gastritis
B	Atrophic gastritis
C	Gastric atrophy
D	Intestinal metaplasia

Question 21 Explanation:

Early phase of chronic gastritis is superficial gastritis in which inflammatory changes are limited to lamina propria and intact gastric glands. Next stage is atrophic gastritis in which inflammatory infiltrate extends deeper into mucosa, with destruction of gastric glands. Final stage of chronic gastritis is gastric atrophy in which glandular structures are lost, and there is a paucity of inflammatory infiltrates. Endoscopically, mucosa is thin and underlying blood vessels can be visualized. Intestinal metaplasia refers to the conversion of gastric glands to small-bowel mucosal glands containing goblet cells. Intestinal metaplasia is an important predisposing factor for gastric cancer.

Question 22

Antral-predominant form of chronic gastritis is called ?

A	Type A gastritis
B	Type B gastritis
C	Type AB gastritis
D	Type O gastritis

Question 22 Explanation:

Chronic gastritis is also classified according to the predominant site of involvement. Type A refers to fundus and body predominant form , with antral sparing (autoimmune) and type B is the antralpredominant form (H. pylori–related). AB gastritis refers to a mixed antral/body picture

Question 23

Which of the following types of chronic gastritis is associated with pernicious anemia ?

A	Type A gastritis
B	Type B gastritis
C	Type AB gastritis
D	Type O gastritis

Question 23 Explanation:

Type A gastritis, also called autoimmune gastritis is associated with pernicious anemia with circulating antibodies against parietal cells and IF.

Question 24

Parietal cell antibodies are directed against which of the following ?

A	Gastrin receptors
B	Acetylcholine receptors
C	Histamine receptors
D	H+,K+-ATPase

Question 24 Explanation:

Antibodies to parietal cells are detected in >90% of patients with pernicious anemia and in up to 50% of patients with type A gastritis. The parietal cell antibody is directed against H+,K+-ATPase.

Question 25

Varioliform gastritis best relates to ?

A	Lymphocytic gastritis
B	Eosinophilic gastritis
C	Granulomatous gastritis
D	Sarcoidosis

Question 25 Explanation:

A subgroup of patients with lymphocytic gastritis have thickened folds noted on endoscopy. These folds are often capped by small nodules that contain a central depression or erosion; this form of the disease is called varioliform gastritis.

Question 26

Which of the following is false about Ménétrier’s disease ?

A	Protein-losing gastropathy
B	Large gastric mucosal folds in body and fundus
C	Hyperplasia of surface & glandular mucous cells
D	None of the above

Question 26 Explanation:

Ménétrier’s disease is not considered a form of gastritis. It is characterized by large, tortuous gastric mucosal folds.

Question 27

Large gastric folds can be seen in ?

A	ZES
B	Gastric malignancy
C	Sarcoidosis
D	All of the above

Question 28

Which of the following decreases protein loss in Ménétrier’s disease ?

A	Anticholinergic agents
B	Prednisone
C	H2 receptor antagonists
D	PPIs

Question 28 Explanation:

Medical therapy with anticholinergic agents, prostaglandins, PPIs, prednisone, and H2 receptor antagonists yields varying results. Anticholinergics decrease protein loss.

Once you are finished, click the button below. Any items you have not completed will be marked incorrect. Get Results

There are 28 questions to complete.

←

List

→

Return

Shaded items are complete.

1	2	3	4	5
6	7	8	9	10
11	12	13	14	15
16	17	18	19	20
21	22	23	24	25
26	27	28	End

Return

See all quizzes of Peptic Ulcer Disease at here:

Peptic Ulcer Disease- Part 1| Peptic Ulcer Disease- Part 2 | Peptic Ulcer Disease- Part 3 | Peptic Ulcer Disease- Part 4| Peptic Ulcer Disease- Part 5

1.Intestinal absorption is increased in ?
A. Cirrhosis
B. Jejunal diverticulosis
C. Hemochromatosis
D. Crohn’s disease

2.Intestinal absorption is increased in ?
A. Cirrhosis
B. Jejunal diverticulosis
C. Wilson’s disease
D. Crohn’s disease

3. Steatorrhea is defined as an increase in stool fat excretion of
how much of dietary fat intake ?
A. > 2 %
B. > 4 %
C. > 5 %
D. > 6 %

4. Malabsorption disorder not associated with steatorrhea is ?
A. Primary lactase deficiency
B. Celiac sprue
C. Abetalipoproteinemia
D. Intestinal lymphangiectasia
5. Malabsorption disorder not associated with steatorrhea is ?
A. Tropical sprue
B. Celiac sprue
C. Pernicious anemia
D. Bacterial overgrowth syndrome

6. In a western-type diet, diarrhea as a sign is a quantitative
increase in stool water or weight of ?
A. > 100 – 200 gram / day
B. > 200 – 225 gram / day
C. > 300 – 425 gram / day
D. > 400 – 500 gram / day

7. Which of the following diarrhea would undoubtedly cease
during a prolonged fast ?
A. Enterotoxin-induced traveler’s diarrhea
B. Primary lactase deficiency
C. VIPoma
D. All of the above

8. Stool osmolality is ?
A. 250 mosmol/kg H2O
B. 275 mosmol/kg H2O
C. 300 mosmol/kg H2O
D. 325 mosmol/kg H2O

9.Fecal osmotic gap is calculated as ?
A. 90 – 2([Na+] + [K+])
B. 190 – 2([Na+] + [K+])
C. 290 – 2([Na+] + [K+])
D. 390 – 2([Na+] + [K+])

10. The lengths of the small intestine and colon are ?
A. ~200 cm and ~50 cm, respectively
B. ~250 cm and ~70 cm, respectively
C. ~300 cm and ~80 cm, respectively
D. ~400 cm and ~100 cm, respectively

11. Effective functional surface area of intestines is about how
many times greater than that of a hollow tube ?
A. 200 times
B. 400 times
C. 600 times
D. 800 times

12. Intestinal mucosa synthesizes & secretes which of the following
immunoglobulin ?
A. Secretory IgA
B. Secretory IgG
C. Secretory IgM
D. Secretory IgE

13. Daily salivary, gastric, pancreatic, biliary, and intestinal fluid
amounts to ?
A. 3 to 4 L/day
B. 5 to 6 L/day
C. 6 to 7 L/day
D. 7 to 8 L/day

14.Which of the following statements is false ?
A. Villi are present in small intestine & colon
B. Nutrient digestion & absorption occurs in small intestine but not in colon
C. Digestive hydrolytic enzymes are present in brush border of villus epithelial cells
D. Secretory function is present in crypts of both small & large intestine

15. Na+, K+ – ATPase in the Na+ pump is located on ?
A. Apical membrane
B. Basolateral membrane
C. Basomedial membrane
D. All of the above

16. Transport protein SGLT is located on ?
A. Apical membrane
B. Basolateral membrane
C. Basomedial membrane
D. All of the above

17. Which of the following about bile acids is false ?
A. Primary bile acids are synthesized in liver from cholesterol
B. Secondary bile acids are synthesized from primary bile acids
C. Cholic & deoxycholic acids are primary bile acids
D. Lithocholic acid is a secondary bile acid

18. What quantity of bile acids are synthesized in liver every day ?
A. 200 mg
B. 300 mg
C. 400 mg
D. 500 mg

19. Primary functions of bile acids is ?
A. To promote bile flow
B. To solubilize cholesterol & phospholipid in gall bladder
C. To enhance dietary lipid digestion & absorption

D. All of the above

20. Bile acids are primarily absorbed “actively” in ?
A. Duodenum
B. Jejunum
C. Ileum
D. Colon

21.Secondary bile acids are formed in ?
A. Duodenum
B. Jejunum
C. Ileum
D. Colon

22. Bile acid synthesis is autoregulated by ?
A. 7 -hydroxylase
B. 7 -hydroxylase
C. 7 -hydroxylase
D. 7 -hydroxylase

23. The bile acid pool size is approximately ?
A. 4 grams
B. 8 grams
C. 12 grams
D. 16 grams

Disorders of Absorption

[MCQ] Disorders of Absorption- Part 1

I. Start the exam by click the “Start” button

Disorders of Absorption- Part 1

I. Start the exam by click the “Start” button

Peptic Ulcer Disease- Part 5

Share this:

Related

[MCQ] Peptic Ulcer Disease- Part 5

[MCQ] Disorders of Absorption- Part 2

You may also like

Leave a Comment Cancel Reply