[MCQ] HIV / AIDS- Part 9

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See all quizzes of HIV / AIDS- Part 9 here:

1 Patients with HIV infection should have CD4+ T cell measurements
at the time of diagnosis and ?
A. Every week
B. Every fortnight
C. Every month
D. Every 3 – 6 months

2 What level of CD4 T cell count is an indication for consideration
of initiating ARV therapy ?
A. < 500 / μL
B. < 450 / μL
C. < 400 / μL
D. < 350 / μL

3 What percentage of decline in CD4+ T cell count is an indication
for considering a change in therapy ?
A. > 5 %
B. > 10 %
C. > 15 %
D. > 25 %

4 What percent of CD4+ T cell is comparable to a CD4+ T cell count
of 200/μL ?
A. 5 %
B. 10 %
C. 15 %
D. 20 %

5 ARV therapy is considered in patients with how many copies of
HIV RNA per milliliter ?
A. > 1000
B. > 10000
C. > 50000
D. > 100000

6 Following initiation / change in ARV therapy, plasma HIV RNA
levels should be monitored every ?
A. 1 week
B. 2 weeks
C. 4 weeks
D. 8 weeks

7 During ARV therapy, plasma HIV RNA levels should be monitored
every ?
A. Month
B. 2 months
C. 3 months
D. 6 months

8 Effective ARV therapy implies a plasma HIV RNA level of ?
A. < 350 copies per milliliter
B. < 200 copies per milliliter
C. < 100 copies per milliliter
D. < 50 copies per milliliter

9 Enfuvirtide binds to which glycoprotein to inhibit fusion of HIV
with the target cell ?
A. Glycoprotein 24
B. Glycoprotein 41
C. Glycoprotein 120
D. Glycoprotein 160
10 HIV virus with defect in which of the following gene may lead to
“long-term nonprogressors” ?
A. nef
B. vif
C. vpr
D. vpu

11 Cleavage of the gag polyprotein produces three large proteins
named ?
A. p24, p17, and p27
B. p24, p17, and p7
C. p34, p17, and p7
D. p24, p27, and p7
12 Antibodies to HIV appear almost invariably within how many
weeks of primary infection ?
A. 2 weeks
B. 8 weeks
C. 12 weeks
D. 16 weeks
13 What percentage of HIV infected patients experience acute HIV
syndrome ?
A. 10 – 30 %
B. 20 – 50 %
C. 50 – 70 %
D. 70 – 90 %
14 Acute HIV syndrome occurs how many weeks after primary
infection ?
A. < 1 week
B. 1 – 2 weeks
C. 2 – 3 weeks
D. 3 – 6 weeks

15 Which of the following about acute HIV syndrome is false ?
Harrison’s 18th Ed. 1542
A. Presentation resembles acute infectious mononucleosis
B. Opportunistic infections may occur
C. ~70% develop lymphadenopathy
D. None of the above
16 Median time from primary HIV infection to development of AIDS
in untreated individuals in developed world is ?
A. ~ 1 year
B. ~ 5 years
C. ~ 10 years
D. ~ 15 years

17 During asymptomatic period of HIV infection, average rate of
CD4+ T cell decline is ?
A. ~ 50 / μL per year
B. ~ 75 / μL per year
C. ~ 100 / μL per year
D. ~ 125 / μL per year

18 Immunodeficiency is severe enough when CD4+ T cell count falls
to ?
A. < 400 / μL
B. < 350 / μL
C. < 300 / μL
D. < 200 / μL

19 Average CD4+ T cell count of an HIV-infected patient at the time of
death is ?
Harrison’s 17th Ed. 1169
A. ~ 50 cells / μL
B. ~ 100 cells / μL
C. ~ 200 cells / μL
D. ~ 300 cells / μL

20 Which of the following sinuses are most commonly involved in
HIV infection ?
A. Maxillary
B. Ethmoid
C. Sphenoid
D. Frontal

21 Most common cause of pneumonia in HIV infection is ?
A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
B. Klebsiella pneumoniae
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Chlamydophila pneumoniae
22 Most common cause of pneumonia in HIV infection is ?
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Haemophilus influenzae
D. Neisseria meningitidis

23 All patients of HIV infection must receive pneumocystis
pneumonia prophylaxis when CD4+ T cell counts is ?
A. < 300 / μL
B. < 200 / μL
C. < 100 / μL
D. < 50 / μL

24 Treatment for PCP or disseminated pneumocystosis is ?
A. Trimethoprim / sulfamethoxazole
B. Dapsone / trimethoprim
C. Clindamycin / primaquine
D. All of the above

25 Agents for prophylaxis for PCP include ?
A. Dapsone + pyrimethamine + leucovorin
B. Aerosolized pentamidine
C. Atovaquone
D. All of the above