[MCQ] HIV / AIDS- Part 8

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HIV / AIDS- Part 8

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Congratulations - you have completed HIV / AIDS- Part 8. You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%. Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%

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Question 1

In KS, histologically which of the following cells proliferate ?

A	Sebaceous cells
B	Spindle cells
C	Epidermal cells
D	All of the above

Question 1 Explanation:

Histologically, in KS, proliferation of spindle cells & endothelial cells, extravasation of RBCs, & hemosiderin-laden macrophages are seen.

Question 2

Differential diagnosis of KS includes ?

A	Lymphoma
B	Bacillary angiomatosis
C	Cutaneous mycobacterial infections
D	All of the above

Question 3

Which of the following is used in the treatment of KS ?

A	Vinblastine
B	IFN-α
C	Liposomal daunorubicin
D	All of the above

Question 3 Explanation:

IFN- has ARV activity. Besides the above three, liposomal doxorubicin & paclitaxel are also useful.

Question 4

Antibodies to HIV almost invariably appear within how many weeks of primary infection ?

A	2
B	8
C	12
D	18

Question 4 Explanation:

Antibodies to HIV usually appear within 6 weeks & almost invariably within 12 weeks of primary infection.

Question 5

The first HIV antibodies detected is directed against ?

A	p17
B	p24
C	p55
D	gp41

Question 5 Explanation:

First antibodies detected in HIV are those directed against the immunodominant region of envelope gp41, followed by antibodies to structural or gag protein p24 and gag precursor p55. Antibodies to p24 gag are followed by antibodies to outer envelope glycoprotein (gp120), the gag protein p17, and the products of the pol gene (p31 and p66).

Question 6

Which of the following is the product of pol gene ?

A	p31
B	p51
C	p66
D	All of the above

Question 6 Explanation:

The products of the pol gene are p31, p51 and p66.

Question 7

Which of the following is an envelope protein of HIV ?

A	gp160
B	gp120
C	gp41
D	All of the above

Question 7 Explanation:

Envelope proteins of HIV are gp160, gp120, p88 and gp41.

Question 8

Low-molecular-weight regulatory proteins encoded by the HIV genes include ?

A	vpr
B	tat
C	nef
D	All of the above

Question 8 Explanation:

Low-molecular-weight regulatory proteins encoded by HIV genes include vpr, vpu, vif, rev, tat & nef.

Question 9

HIV viral protein that elicit neutralizing antibody is ?

A	p17
B	p24
C	p55
D	gp41

Question 9 Explanation:

The only HIV viral proteins that elicit neutralizing antibodies are envelope proteins gp120 & gp41.

Question 10

The HIV envelope glycoproteins gp120 and gp41 are derived from a precursor with a molecular mass of ?

A	160-kDa
B	161-kDa
C	162-kDa
D	163-kDa

Question 10 Explanation:

The envelope of HIV consists of an outer envelope glycoprotein with a molecular mass of 120 kDa and a transmembrane glycoprotein with a molecular mass of 41 kDa. These are initially synthesized as a 160-kDa precursor that is cleaved by cellular proteases.

Question 11

V3 loop region is present in ?

A	gp20
B	gp41
C	gp120
D	gp160

Question 11 Explanation:

Antienvelope antibodies are directed toward gp41 (amino acids 579 - 613 region) or toward a hypervariable region in gp120 molecule known as V3 loop region (amino acids 303 - 338). V3 region is a major site for the development of mutations that lead to variants of HIV. Type-specific neutralizing antibodies are directed to the V3 loop region.

Question 12

Mechanism of immune escape of HIV infection from initial neutralizing antibodies is ?

A	Hyperamination of envelope protein
B	Hypersulphation of envelope protein
C	Hyperphosphorylation of envelope protein
D	Hyperglycosylation of envelope protein

Question 12 Explanation:

Within first 6 months of HIV infection neutralizing antibodies appear. But, HIV escapes these neutralizing antibodies by addition of carbohydrate moieties that interfere with envelope recognition by neutralizing antibodies. Hyperglycosylation of envelope protein is termed as the glycan shield.

Question 13

“Opsonize” in Greek means ?

A	To swell
B	To destroy
C	To prepare for eating
D	To be deformed

Question 14

Nucleic acid testing can detect HIV infection within ?

A	6 days
B	12 days
C	18 days
D	22 days

Question 14 Explanation:

The interval between HIV infection & detection (window period) is 22 days for antibody testing, 16 days with p24 antigen testing and 12 days with nucleic acid testing

Question 15

Factor associated with false-positive enzyme immunoassay (EIA) tests is ?

A	Hepatic disease
B	Recent influenza vaccination
C	Acute viral infections
D	All of the above

Question 15 Explanation:

Factors associated with false-positive EIA tests are antibodies to class II antigens, autoantibodies, hepatic disease, recent influenza vaccination, and acute viral infections.

Question 16

Western blot demonstrating antibodies to which of the major genes of HIV is conclusive evidence of HIV infection ?

A	gag
B	pol
C	env
D	All of the above

Question 16 Explanation:

Western blot demonstrating antibodies to products of all three of the major genes of HIV (gag, pol, and env) is conclusive evidence of infection with HIV.

Question 17

Criteria by US FDA for a positive Western blot is if antibodies exist against ?

A	p24 and gp41
B	p24 and gp120/160
C	gp41 and gp120/160
D	Any of the above

Question 17 Explanation:

Criteria established by the US FDA for a positive Western blot state that a result is considered positive if antibodies exist to two of the three HIV proteins: p24, gp41 and gp120/160.

Question 18

When found indeterminate, Western blot should be repeated after how much time ?

A	1 month
B	2 months
C	3 months
D	6 months

Question 18 Explanation:

Western blot should be repeated in 1 month to determine whether or not the indeterminate pattern is a pattern in evolution.

Question 19

OraQuick Rapid HIV-1 antibody test can be done with ?

A	Blood
B	Plasma
C	Saliva
D	All of the above

Question 19 Explanation:

OraQuick Rapid HIV-1 antibody test can be done on blood, plasma or saliva.

Question 20

In Western Blot, absence of which of the following band raises suspicion that it may a false-positive test result ?

A	p 31
B	p 32
C	p 33
D	p 34

Question 20 Explanation:

In Western Blot, absence of the p31 band (pol gene product) should raise suspicion that it may be a false-positive test result.

Question 21

Test for direct detection of HIV is ?

A	Immune complex dissociated p24 antigen capture assay
B	HIV RNA by bDNA
C	HIV RNA by NASBA
D	All of the above

Question 21 Explanation:

Tests for direct detection of HIV are Immune complex dissociated p24 antigen capture assay, HIV RNA by PCR, HIV RNA by bDNA and HIV RNA by NASBA

Question 22

Test that measure HIV RNA in plasma of patients with HIV infection is ?

A	Reverse transcriptase PCR (RT-PCR)
B	Branched DNA (bDNA)
C	Nucleic acid sequence based amplification (NASBA)
D	All of the above

Question 22 Explanation:

Commercially available tests that measure HIV RNA in plasma of patients with HIV infection are reverse transcriptase PCR (RT-PCR), branched DNA (bDNA), and nucleic acid sequence based amplification (NASBA). DNA PCR is used by research laboratories

Question 23

“Gold standard” for the diagnosis of HIV infection is ?

A	EIA
B	Western blot
C	EIA with Western blot
D	Immune complex dissociated p24 antigen capture assay

Question 23 Explanation:

A positive EIA with a confirmatory Western blot is the “gold standard” for diagnosis of HIV infection.

Question 24

Patients with CD4+ T cell counts <200/μL are at high risk of disease from ?

A	Herpes simplex virus infection (HSV)
B	Herpes zoster
C	Candidal esophagitis
D	P. jiroveci

Question 24 Explanation:

Patients with CD4+ counts <200/μL are at high risk of disease from P. jiroveci and should start prophylaxis treatment.

Question 25

Patients with CD4+ T cell counts <50/μL are at high risk of disease from ?

A	CMV
B	Mycobacteria of M. avium complex (MAC)
C	T. gondii
D	All of the above

Question 25 Explanation:

Patients with CD4+ T cell counts <50/μL are at high risk of disease from CMV, mycobacteria of the M. avium complex (MAC) and/or T. gondii and should start prophylaxis treatment.

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See all quizzes of HIV / AIDS- Part 8 here:

1 In KS, histologically which of the following cells proliferate ?
A. Sebaceous cells
B. Spindle cells
C. Epidermal cells
D. All of the above

2 Differential diagnosis of KS includes ?
A. Lymphoma
B. Bacillary angiomatosis
C. Cutaneous mycobacterial infections
D. All of the above
3 Which of the following is used in the treatment of KS ?
A. Vinblastine
B. IFN-
C. Liposomal daunorubicin
D. All of the above

4 Antibodies to HIV almost invariably appear within how many
weeks of primary infection ?
A. 2
B. 8
C. 12
D. 16

5 The first HIV antibodies detected is directed against ?
A. p17
B. p24
C. p55
D. gp41

6 Which of the following is the product of pol gene ?
A. p31
B. p51
C. p66
D. All of the above

7 Which of the following is an envelope protein of HIV ?
A. gp160
B. gp120
C. gp41
D. All of the above

8 Low-molecular-weight regulatory proteins encoded by the HIV
genes include ?
A. vpr
B. tat
C. nef
D. All of the above

9 HIV viral protein that elicit neutralizing antibody is ?
A. p17
B. p24
C. p55
D. gp41

10 The HIV envelope glycoproteins gp120 and gp41 are derived
from a precursor with a molecular mass of ?
A. 160-kDa
B. 161-kDa
C. 162-kDa
D. 163-kDa

11 V3 loop region is present in ?
A. gp20
B. gp41
C. gp120
D. gp160

12 Mechanism of immune escape of HIV infection from initial
neutralizing antibodies is ?
A. Hyperamination of envelope protein
B. Hypersulphation of envelope protein
C. Hyperphosphorylation of envelope protein
D. Hyperglycosylation of envelope protein

13 “Opsonize” in Greek means ?
Harrison’s 16th Ed. 698
A. To swell
B. To destroy
C. To prepare for eating
D. To be deformed
14 Nucleic acid testing can detect HIV infection within ?
A. 6 days
B. 12 days
C. 18 days
D. 22 days

15 Factor associated with false-positive enzyme immunoassay (EIA)
tests is ?
A. Hepatic disease
B. Recent influenza vaccination
C. Acute viral infections
D. All of the above

16 Western blot demonstrating antibodies to which of the major
genes of HIV is conclusive evidence of HIV infection ?
A. gag
B. pol
C. env
D. All of the above

17 Criteria by US FDA for a positive Western blot is if antibodies
exist against ?
A. p24 and gp41
B. p24 and gp120/160
C. gp41 and gp120/160
D. Any of the above

18 When found indeterminate, Western blot should be repeated after
how much time ?
A. 1 month
B. 2 months
C. 3 months
D. 6 months

19 OraQuick Rapid HIV-1 antibody test can be done with ?
A. Blood
B. Plasma
C. Saliva
D. All of the above

20 In Western Blot, absence of which of the following band raises
suspicion that it may a false-positive test result ?
A. p 31
B. p 32
C. p 33
D. p 34

21 Test for direct detection of HIV is ?
A. Immune complex dissociated p24 antigen capture assay
B. HIV RNA by bDNA
C. HIV RNA by NASBA
D. All of the above

22 Test that measure HIV RNA in plasma of patients with HIV infection is ?
A. Reverse transcriptase PCR (RT-PCR)
B. Branched DNA (bDNA)
C. Nucleic acid sequence based amplification (NASBA)
D. All of the above

23 “Gold standard” for the diagnosis of HIV infection is ?
A. EIA
B. Western blot
C. EIA with Western blot
D. Immune complex dissociated p24 antigen capture assay

24 Patients with CD4+ T cell counts <200/μL are at high risk of
disease from ?
A. Herpes simplex virus infection (HSV)
B. Herpes zoster
C. Candidal esophagitis
D. P. jiroveci

25 Patients with CD4+ T cell counts <50/μL are at high risk of disease
from ?
A. CMV
B. Mycobacteria of M. avium complex (MAC)
C. T. gondii
D. All of the above

HIV / AIDS

[MCQ] HIV / AIDS- Part 8

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HIV / AIDS- Part 8

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