[MCQ] Inflammatory bowel disease- Part 5

I. Start the exam by click the “Start” button

Inflammatory bowel disease- Part 5

Please wait while the activity loads.
If this activity does not load, try refreshing your browser. Also, this page requires javascript. Please visit using a browser with javascript enabled.

If loading fails, click here to try again

Start

Congratulations - you have completed Inflammatory bowel disease- Part 5. You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%. Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%

Your answers are highlighted below.

Question 1

With Sulfasalazine therapy, which of the following should be supplemented ?

A	Iron
B	Folic acid
C	Vitamin B12
D	Pyridoxine

Question 1 Explanation:

Sulfasalazine can also impair folate absorption, and patients should be given folic acid supplements.

Question 2

Sulfasalazine intolerable side effects are attributable to ?

A	Sulfapyridine moiety
B	Sulfasialic moiety
C	Sulfaphenol moiety
D	All of the above

Question 2 Explanation:

Allergic reactions or intolerable side effects of sulfasalazine are attributable to sulfapyridine moiety.

Question 3

Hypersensitivity reactions to Sulfasalazine include all except ?

A	Hepatitis
B	Thrombocytosis
C	Worsening of colitis
D	Reversible sperm abnormalities

Question 3 Explanation:

Hypersensitivity reactions of sulfasalazine include rash, fever, hepatitis, agranulocytosis, hypersensitivity pneumonitis, pancreatitis, worsening of colitis and reversible sperm abnormalities

Question 4

Which out of the following mesalamine formulation has ethylcellulose coating ?

A	Asacol
B	Balsalazide
C	Claversal
D	Pentasa

Question 4 Explanation:

Pentasa is a mesalamine formulation that has an ethylcellulose coating to allow water absorption into small beads containing mesalamine.

Question 5

Which of the following is composed of two 5-ASA radicals linked by an azo bond ?

A	Asacol
B	Balsalazide
C	Claversal
D	Olsalazine

Question 5 Explanation:

Olsalazine is composed of two 5-ASA radicals linked by an azo bond, which is split in the colon by bacterial reduction and two 5-ASA molecules are released.

Question 6

5-ASA agents act within what period of time ?

A	6 - 12 hours
B	1 - 7 days
C	2 - 4 weeks
D	4 - 6 weeks

Question 6 Explanation:

As a general rule, 5-ASA agents act within 2 - 4 weeks.

Question 7

Treatment of choice in severe UC is ?

A	5-ASA
B	Azathioprine
C	Metronidazole
D	Oral glucocorticoid

Question 8

Which of the following is false regarding treatment of IBD ?

A	Antibiotics have no role in treatment of active or quiescent UC
B	Glucocorticoids useful in maintenance therapy in UC & CD
C	5-ASA effective in inducing remission in UC & CD
D	5-ASA useful in maintaining remission in UC

Question 8 Explanation:

Glucocorticoids play no role in maintenance therapy in UC or CD. 5-ASA is effective in inducing remission in UC & CD & maintaining remission in UC. Its role in remission maintenance in CD is not established

Question 9

Which of the following side effects of glucocorticoid therapy in IBD is not related to dose & duration of therapy ?

A	Abdominal striae
B	Subcapsular cataract
C	Osteonecrosis
D	Emotional disturbances

Question 9 Explanation:

Most of these side effects of glucocorticoids, other than osteonecrosis, are related to dose and duration of therapy

Question 10

First line treatment in active inflammatory, fistulizing and perianal CD is ?

A	5-ASA
B	Azathioprine
C	Metronidazole
D	Salicylates

Question 10 Explanation:

Metronidazole is effective in active inflammatory, fistulous, and perianal CD and may prevent recurrence after ileal resection

Question 11

First line treatment in active inflammatory, fistulizing and perianal CD is ?

A	5-ASA
B	Azathioprine
C	Ciprofloxacin
D	Salicylates

Question 11 Explanation:

Both ciprofloxacin and metronidazole antibiotics can be used as first-line drugs for short periods of time in active inflammatory, fistulizing and perianal CD

Question 12

Achilles tendinitis and rupture is associated with which of the following medicines ?

A	Azathioprine
B	Glucocorticoids
C	Ciprofloxacin
D	Metronidazole

Question 12 Explanation:

Ciprofloxacin has recently been associated with Achilles tendinitis and rupture

Question 13

Active end product of Azathioprine is ?

A	6-MP
B	Thioinosinic acid
C	Inosinic acid

Question 13 Explanation:

Azathioprine is converted to 6-MP, which is metabolized to active end product, thioinosinic acid, an inhibitor of purine ribonucleotide synthesis and cell proliferation.

Question 14

Which of the following drugs is used for postoperative prophylaxis of CD ?

A	5-ASA
B	Azathioprine
C	Metronidazole
D	Salicylates

Question 14 Explanation:

6-MP or azathioprine is effective for postoperative prophylaxis of CD.

Question 15

Which of the following statements about azathioprine use in IBD is false ?

A	Pancreatitis as a side effect is completely reversible on stopping drug
B	Thiopurine methyltransferase is the enzyme responsible for its metabolism
C	No increased risk of cancer in IBD patients chronically taking azathioprine
D	Leukopenia is dose-related and delayed

Question 15 Explanation:

IBD patients treated with azathioprine/6-MP are at a fourfold increased risk of developing a lymphoma due to medications, underlying disease, or both.

Question 16

Methotrexate (MTX) inhibits which of the following ?

A	Dihydrofolate reductase
B	HMG-CoA reductase
C	Trypanothione reductase
D	Fumarate reductase

Question 16 Explanation:

Methotrexate (MTX) inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, resulting in impaired DNA synthesis. Additional anti-inflammatory properties may be related to decreased IL-1 production.

Question 17

Potential toxicities of Methotrexate include all except ?

A	Leukopenia
B	Hepatic fibrosis
C	Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
D	Cholelithiasis

Question 17 Explanation:

Potential toxicities of MTX include leukopenia, hepatic fibrosis and hypersensitivity pneumonitis (rarely).

Question 18

Which of the following drugs is a lipophilic peptide ?

A	Azathioprine
B	Methotrexate
C	Cyclosporine
D	Tacrolimus

Question 18 Explanation:

Cyclosporine (CSA) is a lipophilic peptide with inhibitory effects on both the cellular and humoral immune systems

Question 19

Cyclosporine (CSA) acts by inhibition of ?

A	IL-1
B	IL-2
C	IFN-
D	All of the above

Question 19 Explanation:

CSA blocks production of IL-2 by T-helper lymphocytes. CSA binds to cyclophilin, and this complex inhibits calcineurin, a cytoplasmic phosphatase enzyme involved in activation of T cells. CSA also indirectly inhibits B cell function by blocking helper T cells.

Question 20

Which of the following is not a side effect of Cyclosporine therapy ?

A	Hypertension
B	Gingival hyperplasia
C	Alopecia
D	Paresthesias

Question 20 Explanation:

Creatinine elevation, hypertension, gingival hyperplasia, hypertrichosis, paresthesias, tremors, headaches, and electrolyte abnormalities and seizures are common side effects of Cyclosporine therapy

Question 21

Seizures may complicate Cyclosporine therapy if there is ?

A	Hypocholesterolemia
B	Hypercholesterolemia
C	Hypertriglyceridemia
D	All of the above

Question 21 Explanation:

Seizures may complicate CSA therapy if the patient is hypomagnesemic or if serum cholesterol levels are <120 mg/dL

Question 22

Opportunistic infection that commonly occurs with Cyclosporine therapy is ?

A	Pneumocystis carnii infection
B	M. tuberculosis infection
C	Klebsiella infection
D	Klebsiella infection

Question 22 Explanation:

Opportunistic infections, most often Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia, may occur with CSA combination immunosuppressive treatment

Question 23

Severe UC patients that are refractory to IV glucocortcoids, should be treated with ?

A	IV Cyclosporine
B	Oral cyclosporine
C	Azathioprine
D	6 Mercaptopurine

Question 23 Explanation:

CSA is given intravenously in severe UC that is refractory to intravenous glucocorticoids

Question 24

Tacrolimus has a mechanism of action similar to ?

A	Methotrexate
B	Cyclosporine
C	Mycophenolate mofetil
D	Thalidomide

Question 24 Explanation:

Tacrolimus is a macrolide antibiotic with immunomodulatory properties & mechanism of action similar to CSA

Question 25

Which of the following drugs is a macrolide antibiotic ?

A	Azathioprine
B	Methotrexate
C	Cyclosporine
D	Tacrolimus

Question 25 Explanation:

Tacrolimus is a macrolide antibiotic with immunomodulatory properties similar to CSA.

Question 26

First biologic therapy approved for Crohn’s disease was ?

A	Adalimumab
B	Infliximab
C	Natalizumab
D	Etanercept

Question 26 Explanation:

The first biologic therapy approved for Crohn’s disease was infliximab

Question 27

Infliximab is ?

A	IgG1 chimeric monoclonal antibody against TNF
B	IgG1 fully human monoclonal antibody against TNF
C	IgG4 chimeric monoclonal antibody against TNF
D	P75 TNF receptor fusion protein

Question 27 Explanation:

Infliximab is a chimeric mouse-human monoclonal antibody against TNF. It blocks TNF in serum and at cell surface and lyses TNF-producing macrophages & T cells

Once you are finished, click the button below. Any items you have not completed will be marked incorrect. Get Results

There are 27 questions to complete.

←

List

→

Return

Shaded items are complete.

1	2	3	4	5
6	7	8	9	10
11	12	13	14	15
16	17	18	19	20
21	22	23	24	25
26	27	End

Return

See all quizzes of Peptic Ulcer Disease at here:

1.With Sulfasalazine therapy, which of the following should be
supplemented ?
A. Iron
B. Folic acid
C. Vitamin B12
D. Pyridoxine

2. Sulfasalazine intolerable side effects are attributable to ?
A. Sulfapyridine moiety
B. Sulfasialic moiety
C. Sulfaphenol moiety
D. All of the above

3.Hypersensitivity reactions to Sulfasalazine include all
except ?
A. Hepatitis
B. Thrombocytosis
C. Worsening of colitis
D. Reversible sperm abnormalities

4.Which out of the following mesalamine formulation has
ethylcellulose coating ?
A. Asacol
B. Balsalazide
C. Claversal
D. Pentasa

5. Which of the following is composed of two 5-ASA radicals
linked by an azo bond ?
A. Asacol
B. Balsalazide
C. Claversal
D. Olsalazine

6. 5-ASA agents act within what period of time ?
A. 6 – 12 hours
B. 1 – 7 days
C. 2 – 4 weeks
D. 4 – 6 weeks

7. Treatment of choice in severe UC is ?
A. 5-ASA
B. Azathioprine
C. Metronidazole
D. Oral glucocorticoid
8. Which of the following is false regarding treatment of IBD ?
A. Antibiotics have no role in treatment of active or quiescent UC
B. Glucocorticoids useful in maintenance therapy in UC & CD
C. 5-ASA effective in inducing remission in UC & CD
D. 5-ASA useful in maintaining remission in UC

9.Which of the following side effects of glucocorticoid therapy
in IBD is not related to dose & duration of therapy ?
A. Abdominal striae
B. Subcapsular cataract
C. Osteonecrosis
D. Emotional disturbances

10. First line treatment in active inflammatory, fistulizing and
perianal CD is ?
A. 5-ASA
B. Azathioprine
C. Metronidazole
D. Salicylates

11. First line treatment in active inflammatory, fistulizing and
perianal CD is ?
A. 5-ASA
B. Azathioprine
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Salicylates

12. Achilles tendinitis and rupture is associated with which of the
following medicines ?
A. Azathioprine
B. Glucocorticoids
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Metronidazole
13. Active end product of Azathioprine is ?
A. 6-MP
B. Thioinosinic acid
C. Inosinic acid
D. Thioguanic acid

14.Which of the following drugs is used for postoperative
prophylaxis of CD ?
A. 5-ASA
B. Azathioprine
C. Metronidazole
D. Salicylates

15.Which of the following statements about azathioprine use in
IBD is false ?
A. Pancreatitis as a side effect is completely reversible on
stopping drug
B. Thiopurine methyltransferase is the enzyme responsible for
its metabolism
C. No increased risk of cancer in IBD patients chronically taking
azathioprine
D. Leukopenia is dose-related and delayed

16. Methotrexate (MTX) inhibits which of the following ?
A. Dihydrofolate reductase
B. HMG-CoA reductase
C. Trypanothione reductase
D. Fumarate reductase

17. Potential toxicities of Methotrexate include all except ?
A. Leukopenia
B. Hepatic fibrosis
C. Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
D. Cholelithiasis

18. Which of the following drugs is a lipophilic peptide ?
A. Azathioprine
B. Methotrexate
C. Cyclosporine
D. Tacrolimus

19.Cyclosporine (CSA) acts by inhibition of ?
A. IL-1
B. IL-2
C. IFN-
D. All of the above

20. Which of the following is not a side effect of Cyclosporine
therapy ?
A. Hypertension
B. Gingival hyperplasia
C. Alopecia

D. Paresthesias

21. Seizures may complicate Cyclosporine therapy if there is ?
A. Hypocholesterolemia
B. Hypercholesterolemia
C. Hypertriglyceridemia
D. All of the above

22. Opportunistic infection that commonly occurs with
Cyclosporine therapy is ?
A. Pneumocystis carnii infection
B. M. tuberculosis infection
C. Klebsiella infection
D. Pseudomonas infection

23. Severe UC patients that are refractory to IV glucocortcoids,
should be treated with ?
A. IV Cyclosporine
B. Oral cyclosporine
C. Azathioprine
D. 6 Mercaptopurine

24.Tacrolimus has a mechanism of action similar to ?
A. Methotrexate
B. Cyclosporine
C. Mycophenolate mofetil
D. Thalidomide

25. Which of the following drugs is a macrolide antibiotic ?
A. Azathioprine
B. Methotrexate
C. Cyclosporine
D. Tacrolimus

26. First biologic therapy approved for Crohn’s disease was ?
A. Adalimumab
B. Infliximab
C. Natalizumab

D. Etanercept

27. Infliximab is ?
A. IgG1 chimeric monoclonal antibody against TNF
B. IgG1 fully human monoclonal antibody against TNF
C. IgG4 chimeric monoclonal antibody against TNF
D. P75 TNF receptor fusion protein

Inflammatory bowel disease

[MCQ] Inflammatory bowel disease- Part 5

I. Start the exam by click the “Start” button

Inflammatory bowel disease- Part 5

Share this:

Related

[MCQ] Inflammatory bowel disease- Part 4

[MCQ] Inflammatory bowel disease- Part 6

You may also like

Leave a Comment Cancel Reply