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Coagulation Disorders- Part 2
See all quizzes of the Coagulation Disorders at here:
Coagulation Disorders – Part 1 | Coagulation Disorders – Part 2
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1.Control of bleeding episodes in high-responder inhibitor patients can be achieved by ?
A. Prothrombin complex concentrates (PCCs)
B. Activated prothrombin complex concentrates (aPCCs)
C. Recombinant activated Factor VII (FVIIa)
D. All of the above
2. Which of the following is not effective for eradication of the inhibitory antibody in hemophiliacs ?
A. Immunosuppression
B. Immune tolerance induction (ITI)
C. Anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody (rituximab)
D. None of the above
3. Which of the following is the major cause of morbidity and second leading cause of death in hemophilia patients exposed to older clotting factor concentrates ?
Harrison’s 18th Ed. 976
A. Hepatitis A virus
B. Hepatitis B virus
C. Hepatitis C virus
D. Hepatitis E virus
4. Factor IX is activated to IXa by ?
A. Factor IIa
B. Factor Va
C. Factor XIa
D. Factor Xa
5. Which of the following is false about Factor IX ?
A. Synthesized in liver
B. Requires vitamin K for biologic activity
C. Factor IX gene is on X chromosome
D. None of the above
6. In liver, Vitamin K is converted into its active form called ?
A. Hydroxide
B. Sulphide
C. Butyrate
D. Epoxid
7. Vitamin K deficiency is due to ?
A. Inadequate dietary intake
B. Intestinal malabsorption
C. Loss of storage in liver
D. All of the above
8. Which of the following clotting factors has the shortest half life ?
A. Factor II
B. Factor VII
C. Factor IX
D. Factor X
9. Purpura fulminans is related best to ?
A. Hemophilia
B. Christmas disease
C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
D. Vitamin K deficiency
10. Which of the following is the mechanism of DIC ?
A. Uncontrolled generation of thrombin
B. Suppression of physiologic anticoagulant mechanisms
C. Abnormal fibrinolysis
D. All of the above
11. The most sensitive test for DIC is ?
A. Prolongation of PT and/or aPTT
B. Platelet counts <100,000/mm3
C. Elevated levels of FDP
D. Presence of schistocytes (fragmented red cells) in PBF
12. Chronic DIC can occur in ?
A. Giant hemangioma
B. Metastatic carcinoma
C. Dead fetus syndrome
D. All of the above
13. 1037 Findings evident in chronic DIC are all except ?
A. Normal platelet count
B. Normal aPTT
C. Normal levels of plasma FDP or D-dimers
D. Normal fibrinogen
14. Which of the following is the first phase in DIC ?
A. Thrombotic phase
B. Procoagulant consumption phase
C. Secondary fibrinolysis phase
D. None of the above
15. Laboratory findings in DIC include ?
A. Thrombocytopenia
B. Schistocytes
C. Prolonged thrombin time
D. All of the above
16. Laboratory findings in DIC include ?
A. Reduced fibrinogen level
B. Elevated fibrin degradation products (FDP)
C. Positive D dimer immunoassay
D. All of the above
17. Which of the following predict more bleeding in DIC ?
A. Thrombocytopenia
B. Schistocytes
C. Prolonged thrombin time
D. Reduced fibrinogen level
18. Inhibitor of coagulation is ?
A. Antithrombin III
B. Protein C
C. Protein S
D. All of the above
19. Which of the following has no role in the management of hemorrhagic symptoms of DIC ?
A. FFP
B. Cryoprecipitate
C. Clotting factor concentrates
D. Platelet concentrates
20. Low doses of continuous heparin infusion may be effective in patients with low-grade DIC due to ?
A. Purpura fulminans
B. During removal of a dead fetus
C. During surgical resection of giant hemangiomas
D. All of the above
21. Laboratory findings in patients with liver disease include all except ?
A. Prolonged PT
B. Prolonged PTT
C. Mild thrombocytopenia
D. Low fibrinogen level
22. Bleeding in liver disease is best managed with ?
A. Fresh-frozen plasma
B. Prothrombin complex concentrates
C. Fibrinogen concentrates
D. Anticoagulation with heparin
23. Which of the following is false about ‘Hyperhomocysteinemia’ ?
A. Predisposes to the risk of venous & arterial thromboembolism
B. Congenital homocystinuria syndrome patients have Marfanoid habitus
C. Vitamin B 12 deficiency produces high homocysteine levels
D. None of the above
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