[MCQ] Tuberculosis- Part 5

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See all quizzes of Tuberculosis- Part 5 here:

1 Which of the following Anti HIV drugs can be used with rifabutin ?
A. Indinavir
B. Nelfinavir
C. Nevirapine
D. All of the above
2 Which of the following Anti HIV drugs should not be used with
rifabutin ?
A. Indinavir
B. Nelfinavir
C. Ritonavir
D. Nevirapine
3 Which of the following Anti HIV drugs should not be used with
rifabutin ?
A. Indinavir
B. Nelfinavir
C. Delavirdine
D. Nevirapine
4 Multidrug-resistant tuberculosis is defined as ?
A. Resistance to isoniazid
B. Resistance to rifampin
C. Resistance to at least isoniazid and rifampin
D. All of the above
5 Conditions that confer predisposition to progression from latent
tubercular infection to active disease include ?
A. Persons coinfected with HIV and M. tuberculosis
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Chronic renal failure
D. All of the above
6 Conditions that confer predisposition to progression from latent
tubercular infection to active disease include ?
A. Head or neck cancer
B. Organ transplantation
C. Injection-drug use
D. All of the above
7 What quantity of intradermal injection of purified protein derivative
is given in Mantoux test ?
A. 2 TU
B. 3 TU
C. 4 TU
D. 5 TU
8 A negative sputum smear with pulmonary tuberculosis is defined
as how many new sputum smears negative for AFB ?
A. At least two
B. At least three
C. At least four
D. At least five
9 Without sputum culture, a positive sputum smear is defined as
how many new sputum smears positive for AFB ?
A. One or more
B. Two or more
C. Three or more
D. Four or more
10 Which of the following is true for Category 1 tuberculosis ?
A. Positive sputum smear
B. Negative sputum smear, patient seriously ill
C. Patient has extrapulmonary TB & is seriously ill
D. All of the above
11 Which of the following is true for Category 2 tuberculosis?
A. Positive sputum smear, patient relapsed
B. Positive sputum smear, treatment failed
C. Positive sputum smear, patient treated after default
D. All of the above

12 Which of the following is true for Category 3 tuberculosis?
A. Negative sputum smear
B. Abnormal radiograph, patient not seriously ill
C. Patient has extrapulmonary TB but is not seriously ill
D. All of the above
13 A negative sputum smear is defined as at least how many new
sputum smears negative for AFB ?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
14 Which of the following is false for M. tuberculosis relapse ?
A. Bacteriologically positive TB
B. Patient previously treated for TB
C. Patient declared cured or completed treatment
D. None of the above

15 A tuberculosis patient is called “Defaulter” if treatment has been
interrupted for ?
A. 15 days consecutively
B. 30 days consecutively
C. 45 days consecutively
D. Two or more consecutive months

16  “Failure” cases are those with persistent sputum (+) AFB &/or M.
tuberculosis culture how many months of anti-TB treatment ?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 6

17 “Expire” cases are those ?
A. Who died without receiving anti-TB treatment
B. Who died during anti-TB treatment
C. Who died after anti-TB treatment
D. Any of the above

18 Which of the following anti-tubercular drugs was used first to
treat tuberculosis ?
A. Streptomycin
B. Para-aminosalicylic acid (PAS)
C. Isoniazid
D. Pyrazinamide

19 Which of the following places is related to the firt documentation
of streptomycin as anti-tubercular drug ?
A. Yale University
B. Rutgers University
C. Columbia University
D. University of Utrecht

20 Which of the following anti-tubercular drug was developed after
rifampin ?
A. Thiacetazone
B. Pyrazinamide
C. Ethambutol
D. Cycloserine

21 Which of the following is not a first-line antitubercular agent ?
A. Streptomycin
B. Isoniazid
C. Rifampin
D. Pyrazinamide

22 A full course of therapy (completion of treatment) is defined more
accurately by ?
A. Total number of doses taken
B. Length of treatment
C. Type of drugs used
D. All of the above

23 The preferred method of monitoring response to treatment for
pulmonary tuberculosis is ?
A. X-Ray chest
B. Bacteriologic evaluation
C. ADA level
D. Interferon-gamma level

24 With the recommended ATT regimen, >80% of patients will have
negative sputum cultures at the end of ?
A. First month
B. Second month
C. Third month
D. Fourth month

25 With the recommended ATT regimen, virtually all patients will
have negative sputum cultures at the end of ?
A. First month
B. Second month
C. Third month
D. Fourth month

26 To prevent isoniazid-related neuropathy, which of the following
is helpful ?
A. Thiamine
B. Ascorbic acid
C. Pyridoxine
D. Pantothenic acid