[MCQ] Tuberculosis- Part 6

I. Start the exam by click the “Start” button

Tuberculosis- Part 6

Please wait while the activity loads.
If this activity does not load, try refreshing your browser. Also, this page requires javascript. Please visit using a browser with javascript enabled.

If loading fails, click here to try again

Start

Congratulations - you have completed Tuberculosis- Part 6. You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%. Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%

Your answers are highlighted below.

Question 1

Patient is considered as ‘Defaulter’ if ATT treatment has been interrupted for what duration ?

A	15 days
B	One month
C	Two or more consecutive months
D	Any of the above

Question 2

Treatment failure & drug resistance should be suspected when a patient’s sputum cultures remain positive at or beyond ?

A	1 months
B	2 months
C	3 months
D	4 months

Question 2 Explanation:

When a patient’s sputum cultures remain positive at >=3 months, treatment failure and drug resistance should be suspected.

Question 3

Treatment failure should be suspected when a patient’s sputum smears remain positive beyond ?

A	2 months
B	3 months
C	4 months
D	5 months

Question 3 Explanation:

AFB smears positive after 5 months are indicative of treatment failure.

Question 4

Hyperuricemia is the adverse effect of which of the following antitubercular drug ?

A	Isoniazid
B	Ethionamide
C	Pyrazinamide
D	Rifampin

Question 4 Explanation:

Hyperuricemia and arthralgia may be caused by pyrazinamide. Pyrazinamide should be stopped if the patient develops gouty arthritis.

Question 5

Autoimmune thrombocytopenia is the adverse effect of which of the following anti-tubercular drug ?

A	Isoniazid
B	Rifampin
C	Pyrazinamide
D	Ethambutol

Question 5 Explanation:

Individuals who develop autoimmune thrombocytopenia secondary to rifampin therapy should not receive the drug thereafter.

Question 6

Optic neuritis is the adverse effect of which of the following antitubercular drug ?

A	Isoniazid
B	Rifampin
C	Pyrazinamide
D	Ethambutol

Question 6 Explanation:

Optic neuritis with ethambutol is an indication for permanent discontinuation of this drug.

Question 7

Which of the following is an indication for permanent discontinuation of the drug ?

A	Pyrazinamide - if patient develops gouty arthritis
B	Rifampin - if patient has autoimmune thrombocytopenia
C	Ethambutol - if patient has optic neuritis
D	All of the above

Question 8

Optimal treatment duration recommended when TB bacilli is resistant to all of the first-line agents is ?

A	12 months
B	15 months
C	20 months
D	Life long

Question 8 Explanation:

Optimal treatment duration recommended when TB bacilli is resistant to all of the first-line agents is 20 months with a combination of four second-line drugs, including one injectable agent.

Question 9

Which of the following statements about tuberculosis treatment in HIV-infected patients is false ?

A	Standard treatment is equally efficacious in HIV (-) & HIV (+) patients
B	Increased frequency of paradoxical reactions
C	Drug interactions between ART and Isoniazid
D	Occurence of Immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome (IRIS)

Question 10

Which of the following about immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome (IRIS) is false ?

A	Common in patients with advanced immunosuppression
B	Common in patients with extrapulmonary tuberculosis
C	Due to immune response elicited by antigens released from killed bacilli during effective chemotherapy
D	None of the above

Question 10 Explanation:

IRIS is more common among patients with advanced immunosuppression and extrapulmonary tuberculosis. It is due to an immune response elicited by antigens released from killed bacilli are during effective chemotherapy.

Question 11

“Paradoxical reaction” to ATT occur when ?

A	Drug resistance is expected
B	HAART regimen is administered
C	Retreatment of defaulters is begun
D	Any of the above

Question 11 Explanation:

Exacerbations in symptoms, signs, and laboratory or radiographic manifestations of tuberculosis termed paradoxical reactions have been associated with the administration of HAART regimens

Question 12

9 to 12 month antitubercular regimen is still recommended for ?

A	Children with tuberculous meningitis
B	Children with miliary tuberculosis
C	Children with bone or joint tuberculosis
D	All of the above

Question 12 Explanation:

American Academy of Pediatrics recommends that children with bone and joint tuberculosis, tuberculous meningitis, or miliary tuberculosis receive 9-12 months of treatment.

Question 13

Which of the following anti-tubercular drug is contraindicated in pregnancy ?

A	Isoniazid
B	Rifampin
C	Pyrazinamide
D	Streptomycin

Question 13 Explanation:

Pregnant women should receive ATT for 9 months with isoniazid & rifampin supplemented by ethambutol for first 2 months. WHO recommends routine use of pyrazinamide in pregnant women. Streptomycin is contraindicated in pregnancy because it causes eighth-cranial-nerve damage in the fetus.

Question 14

BCG was derived from an attenuated strain of ?

A	M. bovis
B	M. tuberculosis
C	M. intercellulare
D	Any of the above

Question 14 Explanation:

BCG was derived from an attenuated strain of M. bovis & was first administered to humans in 1921.

Question 15

Scar formation & healing following BCG vaccination occurs within ?

A	1 month
B	2 months
C	3 months
D	4 months

Question 15 Explanation:

The local tissue response following BCG vaccination begins 2 to 3 weeks, with scar formation and healing within 3 months.

Question 16

Which of the following anti-tubercular drug interacts with glucocorticoids ?

A	Isoniazid
B	Rifampin
C	Pyrazinamide
D	Ethambutol

Question 16 Explanation:

Following antimycobacterial agents have no or minimal effects on other drugs: amikacin, azithromycin, capreomycin, ethambutol, streptomycin, pyrazinamid

Question 17

Development of drug-resistant tuberculosis is invariably the result of ?

A	Genetic factors
B	Virulence of tubercular bacteria
C	Monotherapy
D	Host resistance

Question 17 Explanation:

Development of drug-resistant TB is invariably the result of monotherapy (failure to prescribe at least two drugs to which tubercle bacilli are susceptible or of the patient to take properly prescribed therapy).

Question 18

Tuberculin skin test (TST) was first introduced in ?

A	1890
B	1915
C	1942
D	1956

Question 18 Explanation:

First introduced in 1890, tuberculin skin test (TST) to diagnose latent tuberculosis is the oldest diagnostic test in use.

Question 19

Cellular mechanism responsible for tuberculin skin test (TST) reactivity is ?

A	Previously sensitized CD4+ T lymphocytes
B	Previously sensitized CD8+ T lymphocytes
C	Previously sensitized CD4+ & CD8+ T lymphocytes
D	Previously sensitized macrophages

Question 19 Explanation:

Delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction (DTH) to M. tuberculosis is the basis of tuberculin skin test (TST). Cellular mechanisms responsible for TST reactivity are related mainly to previously sensitized CD4+ T lymphocytes, which are attracted to the skin-test site.

Question 20

Which of the following statements is false ?

A	TST-positive persons are less susceptible to a new M. tuberculosis infection
B	Cases of active tuberculosis have strongly positive TST
C	Latent or active tuberculosis may not confer fully protective immunity
D	None of the above

Question 21

In Mantoux test, transverse diameter in millimeters of which of the following is measured ?

A	Induration
B	Erythema
C	Ulceration
D	Any of the above

Question 21 Explanation:

In Mantoux test, reactions are read at 48 to 72 hours as the transverse diameter in millimeters of “induration”. The diameter of erythema is not considered.

Question 22

For persons with a very low risk of developing tuberculosis if infected, a cutoff positive PPD skin test is ?

A	5 mm
B	10 mm
C	15 mm
D	20 mm

Question 22 Explanation:

For persons with a very low risk of developing tuberculosis if infected, a cutoff of 15 mm is considered as a positive reaction.

Question 23

For close contacts of infectious tuberculosis cases, a cutoff positive PPD skin test is ?

A	5 mm
B	10 mm
C	15 mm
D	20 mm

Question 24

In HIV infection, a cutoff positive PPD skin test is ?

A	5 mm
B	10 mm
C	15 mm
D	20 mm

Question 24 Explanation:

Positive reactions for close contacts of infectious cases, persons with HIV infection, persons receiving drugs that suppress the immune system, and previously untreated persons whose chest radiograph is consistent with healed tuberculosis are defined as an area of induration >=5 mm in diameter.

Question 25

Interferon-gamma is produced by ?

A	Macrophages
B	T cells
C	Dendritic cells
D	All of the above

Question 25 Explanation:

Interferon-gamma assays are based on the principle that T cells of individuals sensitised with tuberculosis antigens produce interferon gamma when they reencounter mycobacterial antigens. A high level of interferon-gamma production is presumed to be indicative of tuberculosis infection

Question 26

Interferon-gamma assays is useful for ?

A	Diagnosis of latent tuberculosis
B	Diagnosis of active tuberculosis
C	Distinguishing between NTM & M tuberculosis infection
D	All of the above

Question 26 Explanation:

Interferon-gamma assays is useful for diagnosis of latent tuberculosis, diagnosis of active tuberculosis, distinguishing between NTM & M tuberculosis infection, differentiating between M

Once you are finished, click the button below. Any items you have not completed will be marked incorrect. Get Results

There are 26 questions to complete.

←

List

→

Return

Shaded items are complete.

1	2	3	4	5
6	7	8	9	10
11	12	13	14	15
16	17	18	19	20
21	22	23	24	25
26	End

Return

See all quizzes of Tuberculosis- Part 6 here:

1 Patient is considered as ‘Defaulter’ if ATT treatment has been
interrupted for what duration ?
A. 15 days
B. One month
C. Two or more consecutive months
D. Any of the above
2 Treatment failure & drug resistance should be suspected when a
patient’s sputum cultures remain positive at or beyond ?
A. 1 months
B. 2 months
C. 3 months
D. 4 months

3 Treatment failure should be suspected when a patient’s sputum
smears remain positive beyond ?
A. 2 months
B. 3 months
C. 4 months
D. 5 months

4 Hyperuricemia is the adverse effect of which of the following antitubercular
drug ?
A. Isoniazid
B. Ethionamide
C. Pyrazinamide
D. Rifampin
5 Autoimmune thrombocytopenia is the adverse effect of which of
the following anti-tubercular drug ?
A. Isoniazid
B. Rifampin
C. Pyrazinamide
D. Ethambutol

6 Optic neuritis is the adverse effect of which of the following antitubercular
drug ?
A. Isoniazid
B. Rifampin
C. Pyrazinamide
D. Ethambutol

7 Which of the following is an indication for permanent
discontinuation of the drug ?
A. Pyrazinamide – if patient develops gouty arthritis
B. Rifampin – if patient has autoimmune thrombocytopenia
C. Ethambutol – if patient has optic neuritis
D. All of the above
8 Optimal treatment duration recommended when TB bacilli is
resistant to all of the first-line agents is ?
A. 12 months
B. 15 months
C. 20 months
D. Life long

9 Which of the following statements about tuberculosis treatment
in HIV-infected patients is false ?
A. Standard treatment is equally efficacious in HIV (-) & HIV (+)
patients
B. Increased frequency of paradoxical reactions
C. Drug interactions between ART and Isoniazid
D. Occurence of Immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome
(IRIS)

10 Which of the following about immune reconstitution inflammatory
syndrome (IRIS) is false ?
A. Common in patients with advanced immunosuppression
B. Common in patients with extrapulmonary tuberculosis
C. Due to immune response elicited by antigens released from
killed bacilli during effective chemotherapy
D. None of the above

11 “Paradoxical reaction” to ATT occur when ?
A. Drug resistance is expected
B. HAART regimen is administered
C. Retreatment of defaulters is begun
D. Any of the above

12 9 to 12 month antitubercular regimen is still recommended for ?
A. Children with tuberculous meningitis
B. Children with miliary tuberculosis
C. Children with bone or joint tuberculosis
D. All of the above

13 Which of the following anti-tubercular drug is contraindicated in
pregnancy ?
A. Isoniazid
B. Rifampin
C. Pyrazinamide
D. Streptomycin

14 BCG was derived from an attenuated strain of ?
A. M. bovis
B. M. tuberculosis
C. M. intercellulare
D. Any of the above

15 Scar formation & healing following BCG vaccination occurs
within ?
A. 1 month
B. 2 months
C. 3 months
D. 4 months

16 Which of the following anti-tubercular drug interacts with
glucocorticoids ?
A. Isoniazid
B. Rifampin
C. Pyrazinamide
D. Ethambutol

17 Development of drug-resistant tuberculosis is invariably the result
of ?
A. Genetic factors
B. Virulence of tubercular bacteria
C. Monotherapy
D. Host resistance

18 Tuberculin skin test (TST) was first introduced in ?
A. 1890
B. 1915
C. 1942
D. 1956

19 Cellular mechanism responsible for tuberculin skin test (TST)
reactivity is ?
A. Previously sensitized CD4+ T lymphocytes
B. Previously sensitized CD8+ T lymphocytes
C. Previously sensitized CD4+ & CD8+ T lymphocytes
D. Previously sensitized macrophages

20 Which of the following statements is false ?
A. TST-positive persons are less susceptible to a new M.
tuberculosis infection
B. Cases of active tuberculosis have strongly positive TST
C. Latent or active tuberculosis may not confer fully protective
immunity
D. None of the above

21 In Mantoux test, transverse diameter in millimeters of which of
the following is measured ?
A. Induration
B. Erythema
C. Ulceration
D. Any of the above

22 For persons with a very low risk of developing tuberculosis if
infected, a cutoff positive PPD skin test is ?
A. 5 mm
B. 10 mm
C. 15 mm
D. 20 mm

23 For close contacts of infectious tuberculosis cases, a cutoff
positive PPD skin test is ?
A. 5 mm
B. 10 mm
C. 15 mm
D. 20 mm
24 In HIV infection, a cutoff positive PPD skin test is ?
A. 5 mm
B. 10 mm
C. 15 mm
D. 20 mm
25 Interferon-gamma is produced by ?
A. Macrophages
B. T cells
C. Dendritic cells
D. All of the above

26 Interferon-gamma assays is useful for ?
A. Diagnosis of latent tuberculosis
B. Diagnosis of active tuberculosis
C. Distinguishing between NTM & M tuberculosis infection
D. All of the above

Tuberculosis

[MCQ] Tuberculosis- Part 6

I. Start the exam by click the “Start” button

Tuberculosis- Part 6

Share this:

Related

[MCQ] Tuberculosis- Part 5

[MCQ] Tuberculosis- Part 7

You may also like

Leave a Comment Cancel Reply