[MCQ] Parkinson’s Disease (PD) and Other Movement Disorders- Part 4

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Parkinson’s Disease (PD) and Other Movement Disorders- Part 4

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Congratulations - you have completed Parkinson’s Disease (PD) and Other Movement Disorders- Part 4. You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%. Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%

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Question 1

MA0 is responsible for the deactivation of ?

A	Norepinephrine
B	5-hydroxytryptamine
C	Dopamine
D	All of the above

Question 1 Explanation:

Intramitochondrial enzyme MA0 is responsible for the deactivation of norepinephrine, 5- hydroxytryptamine, and dopamine.

Question 2

Which of the following is a monoamine oxidase (MAO) B inhibitor ?

A	Pramipexole
B	Pergolide
C	Selegiline
D	Entacapone

Question 2 Explanation:

Selegiline & rasagiline are selective & irreversible monoamine oxidase (MAO) B inhibitor that block central dopamine metabolism & increase its synaptic concentration. They do not functionally inhibit MAO-A.

Question 3

Which of the following is a monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor ?

A	Furazolidone
B	Cycloserine
C	Clarithromycin
D	Amikacin

Question 3 Explanation:

Furazolidone inhibits monoamine oxidase (MAO) gradually over several days

Question 4

Which of the following is a monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor ?

A	Linezolid
B	Rifapentine
C	Clarithromycin
D	Capreomycin

Question 4 Explanation:

Linezolid is a weak MAO inhibitor and can be associated with the serotonin syndrome when given concomitantly with serotonergic drugs (SSRI). Iproniazid was the first antidepressant introduced and is a MAOI anti-tuberculous drug.

Question 5

Which of the following is not a MAO inhibitor ?

A	Isocarboxazid
B	Phenelzine
C	Tetrabenazine
D	Tranylcypromine

Question 5 Explanation:

MAO inhibitors include selegiline, isocarboxazid, phenelzine and tranylcypromine. The last three are irreversible enzyme inhibitors that binds to MAO covalently, destroying its function forever.

Question 6

With MAO inhibitors, tyramine-induced hypertensive crisis is named as ?

A	Alcohol effect
B	Diet effect
C	Cheese effect
D	Wine effect

Question 6 Explanation:

Inhibition of MAO-A prevents metabolism of tyramine in gut, leading to a potentially fatal hypertensive reaction known as a “cheese effect” as it can be precipitated by foods rich in tyramine (some cheeses, aged meats & red wine).

Question 7

MAO catabolizes which of the following ?

A	Norepinephrine
B	Serotonin
C	Dopamine
D	All of the above

Question 7 Explanation:

MAO is a flavin-containing enzyme critical for regulating neurotransmitter levels by catabolizing endogenous monoamines (NE, serotonin & dopamine) & exogenous amines (dietary tyramine). MAO exists in two subtypes, A & B. MAO-A preferentially metabolizes serotonin (5-HT) & NE. MAO-B preferentially metabolizes trace amines, including phenethylamine. MAO-A & MAO-B metabolize DA & tyramine.

Question 8

Which of the following have only MAO-B ?

A	Intestine
B	Brain
C	Platelets
D	Liver

Question 8 Explanation:

MAO-A is the major enzyme outside of brain, with the exception of platelets and lymphocytes, which have only MAO-B. Ratio of MAO-A to MAO-B in human brain is 25%:75%, whereas in liver, ratio is 50%:50%, in intestine, ratio is 80%:20% & in peripheral adrenergic neurons, ratio is 90%:10%.

Question 9

Which of the following is a selective MAO-A inhibitor ?

A	Phenelzine
B	Isocarboxazid
C	Clorgyline
D	Moclobemide

Question 9 Explanation:

Nonselective MAO inhibitors are phenelzine, isocarboxazid & tranylcypromine. Selegiline is selective for MAO-B. Clorgyline is selective for MAO-A. Moclobemide is a reversible MAO inhibitor.

Question 10

Which of the following is a Catechol O-methyltransferase (COMT) inhibitor ?

A	Selegiline
B	Entacapone
C	Bromocriptine
D	Pergolide

Question 10 Explanation:

Entacapone and tolcapone are catechol O-methyltransferase (COMT) inhibitors. They augment the effects of levodopa by blocking enzymatic degradation of levodopa and dopamine.

Question 11

Discoloration of urine can be due to which of the following drugs ?

A	Selegiline
B	Entacapone
C	Bromocriptine
D	Pergolide

Question 11 Explanation:

Though not of clinical concern, discoloration of urine can be seen with both COMT inhibitors (tolcapone and entacapone) due to accumulation of a metabolite.

Question 12

Livedo reticularis is the side effect of ?

A	Selegiline
B	Amantadine
C	Bromocriptine
D	Pergolide

Question 12 Explanation:

Amantadine is a weak NMDA-receptor antagonist. Its side effects are livido reticularis, weight gain, and impaired cognitive function

Question 13

The only oral agent that reduces dyskinesia while improving parkinsonian features is ?

A	Selegiline
B	Amantadine
C	Bromocriptine
D	Pergolide

Question 13 Explanation:

Amantadine, an antiviral agent, is the only oral agent that reduces dyskinesia while improving parkinsonian features

Question 14

Deep brain stimulation (DBS) for PD primarily targets which of the following ?

A	Ventrolateral thalamus
B	Subthalamic nucleus (STN)
C	Substantia nigra, pars compacta
D	Motor cortex

Question 14 Explanation:

DBS for PD primarily targets subthalamic nucleus (STN) or internal segment of globus pallidus (GPi).

Question 15

In gene therapy for PD, which of the following is used as viral vector ?

A	AAV1
B	AAV2
C	AAV3
D	AAV4

Question 15 Explanation:

Gene therapy involves viral vector delivery of DNA of a therapeutic protein to specific target regions. The AAV2 virus is used as viral vector as it does not cause inflammatory response, is not incorporated into host genome, and is associated with long-lasting transgene expression

Question 16

In patients of PD with psychotic symptoms, which of the following drug is preferred ?

A	Quetiapine
B	Clozapine
C	Risperidone
D	Olanzapine

Question 16 Explanation:

Quetiapine is recommended because it lacks the risk of agranulocytosis associated with clozapine. Risperidone, olanzapine and aripiprazole are not well tolerated by most patients with PD due to a higher incidence of drug-induced parkinsonism (DIP) and akathisia.

Question 17

Which of the following is a clinical phenotype of MSA ?

A	Striatonigral degeneration (SND)
B	Olivopontocerebellar atrophy (OPCA)
C	Progressive autonomic failure (PAF)
D	All of the above

Question 17 Explanation:

Clinical phenotype of MSA can be striatonigral degeneration (SND), olivopontocerebellar atrophy (OPCA) & progressive autonomic failure (PAF).

Question 18

In PSP, neurofibrillary tangles are histochemically positive for which of the following ?

A	Tau
B	Amyloid
C	α-synuclein
D	All of the above

Question 18 Explanation:

Pathologically, PSP is characterized by deposition of neurofibrillary tangles histochemically positive for tau and negative for amyloid or -synuclein

Question 19

Which of the following best relate to hyperkinetic movement disorders ?

A	Voluntary
B	Involuntary
C	Seizure
D	Passive

Question 19 Explanation:

Hyperkinetic movement disorders are characterized by involuntary movements occuring in isolation or in combination

Question 20

Which of the following is not a kind of tremor ?

A	Rest tremor
B	Kinetic tremor
C	Akinetic tremor
D	Postural tremor

Question 20 Explanation:

Tremor consists of alternating contractions of agonist & antagonist muscles in an oscillating, rhythmic manner. It can be most prominent at rest (rest tremor), on assuming a posture (postural tremor), or on actively reaching for a target (kinetic tremor).

Question 21

PD is characterized by which of the following tremor ?

A	Rest tremor
B	Kinetic tremor
C	Postural tremor
D	All of the above

Question 22

Essential tremor (ET) is characterized by which of the following tremor ?

A	Rest tremor
B	Kinetic tremor
C	Postural tremor
D	All of the above

Question 23

Cerebellar disease is characterized by which of the following tremor ?

A	Rest tremor
B	Kinetic tremor
C	Postural tremor
D	All of the above

Question 23 Explanation:

PD is characterized by a resting tremor, essential tremor (ET) by a postural tremor, and cerebellar disease by an intention or kinetic tremor.

Question 24

Enhanced physiologic tremor (EPT) can be seen with the use of ?

A	Valproate
B	Lithium
C	Alcohol
D	All of the above

Question 24 Explanation:

Enhanced physiologic tremors (EPT) are mild, high-frequency, postural or action tremors usually of no clinical consequence seen in anxiety, fatigue, hyperthyroidism, electrolyte abnormalities, valproate, lithium, or alcohol.

Question 25

Which part of the body is affected most in essential tremor (ET) ?

A	Arms
B	Head
C	Legs
D	Larynx

Question 25 Explanation:

Essential tremor (ET) is the most common movement disorder characterized by 6- to 12-Hz postural & kinetic tremor affecting the upper extremities mostly.

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See all quizzes of Parkinson’s Disease (PD) and Other Movement Disorders at here:

Parkinson’s Disease (PD) and Other Movement Disorders- Part 1| Parkinson’s Disease (PD) and Other Movement Disorders- Part 2| Parkinson’s Disease (PD) and Other Movement Disorders- Part 3| Parkinson’s Disease (PD) and Other Movement Disorders- Part 4|Parkinson’s Disease (PD) and Other Movement Disorders- Part 5|Parkinson’s Disease (PD) and Other Movement Disorders- Part 6

1 MA0 is responsible for the deactivation of ?
A. Norepinephrine
B. 5-hydroxytryptamine
C. Dopamine
D. All of the above

2 Which of the following is a monoamine oxidase (MAO) B inhibitor ?
A. Pramipexole
B. Pergolide
C. Selegiline
D. Entacapone

3 Which of the following is a monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor ?
A. Furazolidone
B. Cycloserine
C. Clarithromycin
D. Amikacin

4 Which of the following is a monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor ?
A. Linezolid
B. Rifapentine
C. Clarithromycin
D. Capreomycin

5 Which of the following is not a MAO inhibitor ?
A. Isocarboxazid
B. Phenelzine
C. Tetrabenazine
D. Tranylcypromine

6 With MAO inhibitors, tyramine-induced hypertensive crisis is
named as ?
A. Alcohol effect
B. Diet effect
C. Cheese effect
D. Wine effect

7 MAO catabolizes which of the following ?
A. Norepinephrine
B. Serotonin
C. Dopamine
D. All of the above

8 Which of the following have only MAO-B ?
A. Intestine
B. Brain
C. Platelets
D. Liver

9 Which of the following is a selective MAO-A inhibitor ?
A. Phenelzine
B. Isocarboxazid
C. Clorgyline
D. Moclobemide

10 Which of the following is a Catechol O-methyltransferase (COMT)
inhibitor ?
A. Selegiline
B. Entacapone
C. Bromocriptine
D. Pergolide

11 Discoloration of urine can be due to which of the following
drugs ?

A. Selegiline
B. Entacapone
C. Bromocriptine
D. Pergolide

12 Livedo reticularis is the side effect of ?
A. Selegiline
B. Amantadine
C. Bromocriptine
D. Pergolide

13 The only oral agent that reduces dyskinesia while improving
parkinsonian features is ?
A. Selegiline
B. Amantadine
C. Bromocriptine
D. Pergolide

14 Deep brain stimulation (DBS) for PD primarily targets which of
the following ?
A. Ventrolateral thalamus
B. Subthalamic nucleus (STN)
C. Substantia nigra, pars compacta
D. Motor cortex

15 In gene therapy for PD, which of the following is used as viral
vector ?
A. AAV1
B. AAV2
C. AAV3
D. AAV4

16 In patients of PD with psychotic symptoms, which of the following
drug is preferred ?
A. Quetiapine
B. Clozapine
C. Risperidone
D. Olanzapine

17 Which of the following is a clinical phenotype of MSA ?
A. Striatonigral degeneration (SND)
B. Olivopontocerebellar atrophy (OPCA)
C. Progressive autonomic failure (PAF)
D. All of the above

18 Bell’s reflex refers to ?
A. Elevation & adduction of eyes on attempted lid closure
B. Elevation & abduction of eyes on attempted lid closure
C. Depression & adduction of eyes on attempted lid closure
D. Depression & abduction of eyes on attempted lid closure

19 In PSP, neurofibrillary tangles are histochemically positive for
which of the following ?
A. Tau
B. Amyloid
C. -synuclein
D. All of the above

20 Which of the following best relate to hyperkinetic movement
disorders ?
A. Voluntary
B. Involuntary
C. Seizure
D. Passive

21 Which of the following is not a kind of tremor ?
A. Rest tremor
B. Kinetic tremor
C. Akinetic tremor
D. Postural tremor

22 PD is characterized by which of the following tremor ?
A. Rest tremor
B. Kinetic tremor
C. Postural tremor
D. All of the above
23 Essential tremor (ET) is characterized by which of the following
tremor ?
A. Rest tremor
B. Kinetic tremor
C. Postural tremor
D. All of the above
24 Cerebellar disease is characterized by which of the following
tremor ?
A. Rest tremor
B. Kinetic tremor
C. Postural tremor
D. All of the above

25 Enhanced physiologic tremor (EPT) can be seen with the use of ?
A. Valproate
B. Lithium
C. Alcohol
D. All of the above

26 Which part of the body is affected most in essential tremor (ET) ?
A. Arms
B. Head
C. Legs
D. Larynx

Parkinson’s Disease (PD) and Other Movement Disorders

[MCQ] Parkinson’s Disease (PD) and Other Movement Disorders- Part 4

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Parkinson’s Disease (PD) and Other Movement Disorders- Part 4

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