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HIV / AIDS- Part 13
See all quizzes of HIV / AIDS- Part 13 here:
1 In patients who are HLA-B5701, which of the following can produce
hypersensitivity ?
A. Tenofovir
B. Didanosine
C. Abacavir
D. Emtricitabine
2 Vivid dreams is a side effect of which of the following
nonnucleoside inhibitors of HIV-1 reverse transcriptase ?
A. Nevirapine
B. Delavirdine
C. Efavirenz
D. Etravirine
3 Which of the following results in inhibition of cytochrome P450
action ?
A. Tenofovir
B. Indinavir
C. Ritonavir
D. Nelfinavir
4 Which of the following increases the activity of
glucuronyltransferases ?
A. Tenofovir
B. Indinavir
C. Ritonavir
D. Nelfinavir
4 Indinavir levels are decreased during concurrent therapy with ?
A. Rifabutin
B. Efavirenz
C. Nevirapine
D. All of the above
8 Indinavir levels are increased during concurrent therapy with ?
A. Ketoconazole
B. Delavirdine
C. Ritonavir
D. All of the above
9 Total cholesterol & triglyceride levels do not increase with which
of the following protease inhibitors ?
A. Tenofovir
B. Indinavir
C. Atazanavir
D. Nelfinavir
10 Prolongations of PR interval occurs with which of the following
protease inhibitors ?
A. Tenofovir
B. Indinavir
C. Atazanavir
D. Nelfinavir
11 Molecule of which of the following contain a sulfonamide moiety ?
A. Atazanavir
B. Tipranavir
C. Fosamprenavir
D. Darunavir
12 Which of the following drugs is a CCR5 antagonist ?
A. Enfuvirtide
B. Maraviroc
C. Raltegravir
D. All of the above
13 Enfuvirtide is best related to which of the following ?
A. gp41
B. gp120
C. gp160
D. p24
14 Which of the following ARV is an integrase inhibitor ?
A. Fosamprenavir
B. Raltegravir
C. Enfuvirtide
D. Maraviroc
15 Guidelines for the use of ARV therapy include ?
A. Should not be used as monotherapy for HIV infection
B. Immediate treatment of every HIV-infected individual upon
diagnosis may not be prudent
C. Patients started on ARV should remain on ARV therapy
D. All of the above
16 Following the initiation of ARV therapy, a 1 log (tenfold) reduction
in plasma HIV RNA levels is expected within ?
A. 1 – 2 months
B. 2 – 3 months
C. 3 – 4 months
D. 4 – 6 months
17 Plasma HIV RNA levels & CD4+ T lymphocyte counts should be
monitored how frequently during therapy ?
A. Every 1 – 2 months
B. Every 2 – 3 months
C. Every 3 – 4 months
D. Every 4 – 6 months
18 Genotyping of HIV quasispecies may be done by ?
A. Dideoxynucleotide sequencing
B. DNA chip hybridization
C. Line probe assays
D. All of the above
19 The first case of HIV transmission from a patient to health care
worker was reported in ?
A. 1982
B. 1983
C. 1984
D. 1985
20 The risk of HIV infection following a percutaneous exposure to
HIV-contaminated blood is ?
A. ~ 0.1 %
B. ~ 0.2 %
C. ~ 0.3 %
D. ~ 0.4 %
21 The risk of HIV infection following a mucous membrane exposure
to HIV-contaminated blood is ?
A. ~ 0.04 %
B. ~ 0.09 %
C. ~ 0.9 %
D. ~ 1.4 %
22 Which of the following is false about per-contact risk of HIV
transmission from sexual exposure ?
A. 1 to 30% with receptive anal intercourse
B. 0.1 to 1.0% with insertive vaginal intercourse
C. 0.1 to 10.0% with receptive vaginal intercourse
D. None of the above
23 The estimated risk of HIV transmission with sharing needles for
injection-drug use is ?
A. ~ 0.67 % per needle-sharing contact
B. ~ 1.67 % per needle-sharing contact
C. ~ 3.67 % per needle-sharing contact
D. ~ 6.67 % per needle-sharing contact
24 Source HIV-positive patients have a viral load of ?
A. >= 100 copies per milliliter
B. >= 500 copies per milliliter
C. >= 1000 copies per milliliter
D. >= 1500 copies per milliliter
25 Greater benefit of postexposure HIV prophylaxis is obtained when
it is initiated within ?
A. 36 hours
B. 48 hours
C. 72 hours
D. 96 hours
26 Postexposure ARV prophylaxis (PEP) is given for ?
A. 2 weeks
B. 4 weeks
C. 6 weeks
D. 8 weeks
