[MCQ] HIV / AIDS- Part 11

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HIV / AIDS- Part 11

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Congratulations - you have completed HIV / AIDS- Part 11. You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%. Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%

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Question 1

Which of the following is not a behavioral abnormality in HIV encephalopathy ?

A	Apathy
B	Significant changes in level of alertness
C	State of agitation
D	Mild mania

Question 1 Explanation:

In contrast to dementia due to toxic/metabolic encephalopathies, significant changes in level of alertness are absent in HIV encephalopathy.

Question 2

Etiologic agent of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML) is ?

A	Toxoplasma gondii
B	Trypanosoma cruz
C	JC virus
D	All of the above

Question 2 Explanation:

JC virus, a human polyomavirus that is the etiologic agent of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML) which is the only known clinical manifestation of JC virus infection

Question 3

Type of spinal cord disease seen in patients with AIDS is ?

A	Vacuolar myelopathy
B	Pure sensory ataxia
C	Paresthesias & dysesthesias of lower extremities
D	All of the above

Question 4

Vacuolar myelopathy in patients with AIDS is pathologically similar to ?

A	Transverse myelitis
B	Subacute combined degeneration of cord
C	Chronic arachnoiditis
D	Tabes dorsalis

Question 4 Explanation:

Vacuolar myelopathy in patients with AIDS is pathologically similar to subacute combined degeneration of cord.

Question 5

Which of the following about myelopathy in AIDS is false ?

A	Present in ~20% of patients with AIDS
B	90% patients have dementia
C	Do not respond well to ARV drugs
D	None of the above

Question 6

Most common peripheral neuropathy in patients with HIV infection is ?

A	Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy
B	Mononeuritis multiplex
C	Proximal sensory polyneuropathy
D	Distal sensory polyneuropathy

Question 7

HIV-associated myopathy is due to ?

A	HIV infection
B	Zidovudine
C	Generalized wasting syndrome
D	All of the above

Question 7 Explanation:

HIV-associated myopathy is due to HIV infection itself, zidovudine & generalized wasting syndrome

Question 8

Which of the following is the histologic hallmark of zidovudineinduced myopathy ?

A	Red ragged fibers
B	Nemaline rod bodies
C	Cytoplasmic bodies
D	Mitochondrial abnormalities

Question 8 Explanation:

Zidovudine interfere with the function of mitochondrial polymerases. Its toxicity is dose-dependent & reversible following discontinuation of drug. Red ragged fibers are a histologic hallmark of zidovudine-induced myopathy

Question 9

Most common abnormal findings on funduscopic examination in advanced HIV infection is ?

A	Chorioretinitis
B	Retinal atrophy
C	Cotton-wool spots
D	Perivascular hemorrhage and exudate in retina

Question 9 Explanation:

Most common abnormal findings in optical fundus is cotton-wool spots. These are hard white spots on surface of retina with irregular edge. They represent areas of retinal ischemia secondary to microvascular disease. They are not associated with visual loss & remain stable or improve over time

Question 10

Characteristic abnormal findings on funduscopic examination in HIV infection with CMV retinitis is ?

A	Chorioretinitis
B	Retinal atrophy
C	Cotton-wool spots
D	Perivascular hemorrhage and exudate in retina

Question 10 Explanation:

The characteristic in HIV infection with CMV retinitis is perivascular hemorrhage & exudate in retina due to necrotic inflammatory process and the visual loss is irreversible. Rhegmatogenous retinal detachment after retinal atrophy in areas of prior inflammation may occur.

Question 11

PORN stands for ?

A	Progressive ocular retinal necrosis
B	Progressive outer retinal necrosis
C	Painful ocular retinal necrosis
D	Painful outer retinal necrosis

Question 11 Explanation:

In HIV, Progressive outer retinal necrosis occurs due to HSV & varicella zoster virus with pain, keratitis, and iritis.

Question 12

HAART has had little effect on frequency of which of the following neoplastic diseases in HIV infection ?

A	Kaposi’s sarcoma
B	Human papilloma virus associated malignancies
C	Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
D	All of the above

Question 12 Explanation:

HAART has had little effect on human papilloma virus (HPV)-associated malignancies and AIDSassociated systemic lymphomas

Question 13

Most common HPV genotype in HIV-infected population is ?

A	8 and 5
B	18 and 16
C	32 and 22
D	56 and 53

Question 13 Explanation:

Most common HPV genotypes in the general population are 16 and 18. In HIV-infected population genotypes 56 and 53 predominate

Question 14

Lymphoma seen in patients with HIV infection is ?

A	Grade III or IV immunoblastic lymphoma
B	Burkitt’s lymphoma
C	Primary CNS lymphoma
D	All of the above

Question 14 Explanation:

Three categories of lymphoma seen with HIV infection are grade III or IV immunoblastic lymphoma, Burkitt’s lymphoma, & primary CNS lymphoma

Question 15

Which of the following statements about idiopathic CD4+ T lymphocytopenia (ICL) is false ?

A	Absolute CD4+ T cell count of <300/μL
B	No evidence of HIV-1, HIV-2, HTLV-I, or HTLV-II
C	Hypergammaglobulinemia
D	Opportunistic diseases occur

Question 15 Explanation:

In ICL, Ig levels are normal or decreased while HIV-infected individuals have hypergammaglobulinemia. Absolute CD4+ T cell count are <300/μL or <20% of total T cells on at least two occasions 6 weeks apart.

Question 16

Which of the following category is a viral reverse transcriptase inhibitor ?

A	Nucleoside analogues
B	Nucleotide analogues
C	Nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
D	All of the above

Question 16 Explanation:

FDA-approved reverse transcriptase inhibitors include nucleoside analogues (zidovudine, didanosine, zalcitabine, stavudine, lamivudine, abacavir & emtricitabine), nucleotide analogue (tenofovir) & nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (nevirapine, delavirdine & efavirenz).

Question 17

First class of drugs licensed for treatment of HIV infection was ?

A	Viral reverse transcriptase enzyme inhibitors
B	Viral protease enzyme inhibitors
C	Viral integrase enzyme inhibitors
D	Viral entry inhibitors

Question 17 Explanation:

Viral reverse transcriptase enzyme inhibitors were the first class of drugs licensed for treatment of HIV infection.

Question 18

A high-fat meal increases the bioavailability of all except ?

A	Saquinavir
B	Nelfinavir
C	Indinavir
D	Ritonavir capsules

Question 19

Which of the following PI is not protein-bound in plasma ?

A	Saquinavir
B	Nelfinavir
C	Indinavir
D	Ritonavir

Question 20

Which of the following protease inhibitors (PI) has the highest cerebrospinal fluid penetration ?

A	Ritonavir
B	Saquinavir
C	Indinavir
D	All of the above

Question 21

Which of the following PI must be stored in an airtight container with a desiccant ?

A	Saquinavir
B	Nelfinavir
C	Indinavir
D	Ritonavir

Question 22

Which of the following PI must be stored in a refrigerator ?

A	Saquinavir
B	Nelfinavir
C	Indinavir
D	Ritonavir

Question 23

Which of the following PI contains alcohol ?

A	Saquinavir
B	Nelfinavir
C	Indinavir
D	Ritonavir

Question 24

The combination of ritonavir and rifabutin is associated with an increased incidence of rifabutin-associated toxicity particularly ?

A	Uveitis
B	Peripheral neuropathy
C	Cardiomyopathy
D	Renal failure

Question 25

Drug to be avoided with HIV protease inhibitors is ?

A	Terfenadine
B	Midazolam
C	Cisapride
D	All of the above

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See all quizzes of HIV / AIDS- Part 11 here:

1 Which of the following is not a behavioral abnormality in HIV
encephalopathy ?
A. Apathy
B. Significant changes in level of alertness
C. State of agitation
D. Mild mania

2 Etiologic agent of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
(PML) is ?
A. Toxoplasma gondii
B. Trypanosoma cruz
C. JC virus
D. All of the above

3 Type of spinal cord disease seen in patients with AIDS is ?
A. Vacuolar myelopathy
B. Pure sensory ataxia
C. Paresthesias & dysesthesias of lower extremities
D. All of the above
4 Vacuolar myelopathy in patients with AIDS is pathologically similar
to ?
A. Transverse myelitis
B. Subacute combined degeneration of cord
C. Chronic arachnoiditis
D. Tabes dorsalis

5 Which of the following about myelopathy in AIDS is false ?
A. Present in ~20% of patients with AIDS
B. 90% patients have dementia
C. Do not respond well to ARV drugs
D. None of the above
6 Most common peripheral neuropathy in patients with HIV infection
is ?
A. Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy
B. Mononeuritis multiplex
C. Proximal sensory polyneuropathy
D. Distal sensory polyneuropathy

7 HIV-associated myopathy is due to ?
A. HIV infection
B. Zidovudine
C. Generalized wasting syndrome
D. All of the above

8 Which of the following is the histologic hallmark of zidovudineinduced
myopathy ?
A. Red ragged fibers
B. Nemaline rod bodies
C. Cytoplasmic bodies
D. Mitochondrial abnormalities

9 Most common abnormal findings on funduscopic examination in
advanced HIV infection is ?
A. Chorioretinitis
B. Retinal atrophy
C. Cotton-wool spots
D. Perivascular hemorrhage and exudate in retina

10 Characteristic abnormal findings on funduscopic examination in
HIV infection with CMV retinitis is ?
A. Chorioretinitis
B. Retinal atrophy
C. Cotton-wool spots
D. Perivascular hemorrhage and exudate in retina

11 PORN stands for ?
A. Progressive ocular retinal necrosis
B. Progressive outer retinal necrosis
C. Painful ocular retinal necrosis
D. Painful outer retinal necrosis

12 HAART has had little effect on frequency of which of the following
neoplastic diseases in HIV infection ?
A. Kaposi’s sarcoma
B. Human papilloma virus associated malignancies
C. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
D. All of the above

13 Most common HPV genotype in HIV-infected population is ?
A. 8 and 5
B. 18 and 16
C. 32 and 22
D. 56 and 53

14 Lymphoma seen in patients with HIV infection is ?
A. Grade III or IV immunoblastic lymphoma
B. Burkitt’s lymphoma
C. Primary CNS lymphoma
D. All of the above

15 Which of the following statements about idiopathic CD4+ T
lymphocytopenia (ICL) is false ?
A. Absolute CD4+ T cell count of <300/μL
B. No evidence of HIV-1, HIV-2, HTLV-I, or HTLV-II
C. Hypergammaglobulinemia
D. Opportunistic diseases occur

16 Which of the following category is a viral reverse transcriptase
inhibitor ?
A. Nucleoside analogues
B. Nucleotide analogues
C. Nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
D. All of the above

17 First class of drugs licensed for treatment of HIV infection was ?
A. Viral reverse transcriptase enzyme inhibitors
B. Viral protease enzyme inhibitors
C. Viral integrase enzyme inhibitors
D. Viral entry inhibitors

18 A high-fat meal increases the bioavailability of all except ?
A. Saquinavir
B. Nelfinavir
C. Indinavir
D. Ritonavir capsules
19 Which of the following PI is not protein-bound in plasma ?
A. Saquinavir
B. Nelfinavir
C. Indinavir
D. Ritonavir
20 Which of the following protease inhibitors (PI) has the highest
cerebrospinal fluid penetration ?
A. Ritonavir
B. Saquinavir
C. Indinavir
D. All of the above
21 Which of the following PI must be stored in an airtight container
with a desiccant ?
A. Saquinavir
B. Nelfinavir
C. Indinavir
D. Ritonavir
22 Which of the following PI must be stored in a refrigerator ?
A. Saquinavir
B. Nelfinavir
C. Indinavir
D. Ritonavir
23 Which of the following PI contains alcohol ?
A. Saquinavir
B. Nelfinavir
C. Indinavir
D. Ritonavir
24 The combination of ritonavir and rifabutin is associated with an
increased incidence of rifabutin-associated toxicity particularly ?
A. Uveitis
B. Peripheral neuropathy
C. Cardiomyopathy
D. Renal failure
25 Drug to be avoided with HIV protease inhibitors is ?
A. Terfenadine
B. Midazolam
C. Cisapride
D. All of the above

HIV / AIDS

[MCQ] HIV / AIDS- Part 11

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HIV / AIDS- Part 11

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