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Acute Kidney Injury & Chronic Kidney Disease- Part 6
See all quizzes of Cellular and Molecular Biology of the Kidney at here:
1.Which of the following leads to hyporeninemic hypoaldosteronism ?
A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Obstructive uropathy
C. Sickle cell nephropathy
D. All of the above
2. Which of the following growth patterns is seen when cell mass of parathyroid glands increases with CKD ?
A. Diffuse hyperplasia (polyclonal)
B. Nodular growth (monoclonal) within diffuse hyperplasia
C. Diffuse monoclonal hyperplasia (“adenoma” or tertiary
autonomous hyperparathyroidism)
D. Any of the above
3. Brown tumor relates best with ?
A. Subcuteneous tissue
B. Bone
C. Brain
D. Liver
4. Adynamic bone disease can result from ?
A. Use of vitamin D preparations
B. Excessive calcium-containing phosphate binders
C. High-calcium dialysis solutions
D. All of the above
5. Calciphylaxis is best related to which drug ?
A. Aspirin
B. Statins
C. Warfarin
D. All of the above
6. Which of the following is a phosphate binder ?
A. Calcium acetate
B. Calcium carbonate
C. Sevelamer
D. All of the above
7. Which of the following is a consequence of a very low PTH level ?
A. Adynamic bone disease
B. Fracture
C. Ectopic calcification
D. All of the above
8. Which of the following is not a negative acute-phase reactant ?
A. Transthyretin
B. Fetuin (AHSG)
C. Albumin
D. Fibrinogen
9. Which of the following is associated with poor prognosis in late-stage CKD patients ?
A. Low blood pressure
B. Reduced body mass index
C. Hypolipidemia
D. All of the above
10. In CKD patients with diabetes or proteinuria > 1 gram/day, blood pressure should be reduced to ?
A. 110 / 70 mm Hg
B. 125 / 75 mm Hg
C. 135 / 85 mm Hg
D. 140 / 90 mm Hg
11. Pericardial effusion is a side effect of ?
A. Prazosin
B. Minoxidil
C. Eplerenone
D. Labetalol
12. Normocytic, normochromic anemia is almost always present by which stage of CKD ?
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
13. Primary cause of anemia in patients with CKD is ?
A. Insufficient erythropoietin (EPO)
B. Iron deficiency
C. Anemia of chronic disease
D. Bone marrow fibrosis
14. Abnormal bleeding time and coagulopathy in renal failure may be reversed temporarily with ?
A. Desmopressin (DDAVP)
B. IV conjugated estrogens
C. Erythropoietin (EPO) therapy
D. All of the above
15. Peripheral neuropathy of CKD becomes clinically evident after which stage of CKD ?
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
16. Which of the following is true for peripheral neuropathy of CKD ?
A. Sensory nerves involved more than motor
B. Lower extremities involved more than upper
C. Distal parts of extremities involved more than proximal
D. All of the above
17. Uremic fetor is due to breakdown of urea to ammonia in ?
A. Saliva
B. Lung
C. Mucous membranes of mouth
D. All of the above
18. Skin pigmentation in advanced CKD is due to ?
A. Chromogens
B. Chromolytes
C. Urochromes
D. Renochromes
19. Nephrogenic fibrosing dermopathy is similar to ?
A. Guttate morphea
B. Scleromyxedema
C. Linear scleroderma
D. Diffuse fasciitis with eosinophilia
20. Which of the following can precipitate nephrogenic fibrosing dermopathy ?
A. Vitamin D
B. Metformin
C. Aluminum
D. Gadolinium
21. CKD is likely if bilateral kidney size is ?
A. < 8.5 cm
B. < 9.0 cm
C. < 9.5 cm
D. < 10 cm
22. Clear indications for initiation of renal replacement therapy include ?
A. Pericarditis
B. Progressive neuropathy due to uremia
C. Encephalopathy
D. All of the above
23. Clear indications for initiation of renal replacement therapy include ?
A. Muscle irritability
B. Anorexia & nausea not relieved by protein restriction
C. Refractory fluid & electrolyte abnormalities
D. All of the above
24. Clear indications for initiation of renal replacement therapy include ?
A. Unresponsive volume overload
B. Unresponsive hyperkalemia
C. Progressive metabolic acidosis
D. All of the above
25. Clinical clues indicating the imminent development of uremic complications are ?
A. History of hiccoughing
B. Intractable pruritus
C. Morning nausea & vomiting
D. All of the above
26. Clinical clues indicating the imminent development of uremic complications are ?
A. Muscle twitching & cramps
B. Asterixis
C. Non-compliance of treatment
D. All of the above
27. Calcium reabsorption in cortical thick ascending limb of Henle’s loop (cTAL) requires which of the following ?
A. PTH
B. 1,25(OH)2D
C. Paracellin-1
D. Calbindin-D28k
28. In cells & in ECF, phosphorus exists in which form ?
A. H2PO4–
B. NaHPO4–
C. HPO42–
D. All of the above
29. In adults, above what level of fasting serum phosphate concentration is called Hyperphosphatemia ?
A. 2.5 mg/dL
B. 3.5 mg/dL
C. 4.5 mg/dL
D. 5.5 mg/dL
30. Normally, the concentration of magnesium in serum is ?
A. 0.7 to 1.2 mg/dL
B. 1.2 to 1.6 mg/dL
C. 1.7 to 2.4 mg/dL
D. 2.4 to 2.9 mg/dL
31. Which of the following should be supplemented in patients with hypomagnesemia ?
A. Calcium
B. Potassium
C. Phosphate
D. All of the above
32. Which of the following prolong QT interval ?
A. Quinidine
B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
C. Hypocalcemia
D. All of the above