[MCQ] Diabetes Mellitus- Part 5

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Diabetes Mellitus- Part 5

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Congratulations - you have completed Diabetes Mellitus- Part 5. You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%. Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%

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Question 1

Which of the following is not a nonvascular chronic complication of DM ?

A	Macular edema
B	Glaucoma
C	Cataracts
D	Periodontal disease

Question 1 Explanation:

Macular edema is a microvascular chronic complication of diabetes mellitus.

Question 2

The redox potential is zero for ?

A	Oxygen
B	Hydrogen
C	Nitrogen
D	Helium

Question 2 Explanation:

The redox potential is a measure (in volts) of the affinity of a substance for electrons, its electronegativity compared with hydrogen (which is set at 0).

Question 3

“AGE” stands for ?

A	Activated glycosylation end products
B	Anti glycosylation end products
C	Advanced glycosylation end products
D	Associated glycosylation end products

Question 3 Explanation:

Increased intracellular glucose leads to the formation of advanced glycosylation end products (AGEs) via the nonenzymatic glycosylaton of intra- and extracellular proteins.

Question 4

Intracellular glucose is converted to sorbitol by which enzyme ?

A	Aldose reductase
B	Phosphofructokinase
C	Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase
D	Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase

Question 4 Explanation:

Intracellular glucose is predominantly metabolized by phosphorylation and subsequent glycolysis, but when increased, some glucose is converted to sorbitol by the enzyme aldose reductase

Question 5

In the Diabetes Control and Complications Trial (DCCT), which of the following complication showed maximum reduction with improved glycemic control ?

A	Retinopathy
B	Microalbuminuria
C	Clinical nephropathy
D	Neuropathy

Question 5 Explanation:

DCCT demonstrated that improvement of glycemic control reduced nonproliferative & proliferative retinopathy (47%), microalbuminuria (39%), clinical nephropathy (54%) & neuropathy (60%).

Question 6

Which of the following trial was not for the study of chronic complications of diabetes mellitus ?

A	Diabetes Control and Complications Trial (DCCT)
B	Tuskegee Study
C	Kumamoto study
D	United Kingdom Prospective Diabetes Study (UKPDS)

Question 6 Explanation:

Tuskegee Study (1932–1972) was a prospective study of 431 African-American men with seropositive latent syphilis of >3 years’ duration

Question 7

Individuals with DM are how much more likely to become legally blind than individuals without DM ?

A	5 times
B	10 times
C	15 times
D	25 times

Question 7 Explanation:

Individuals with DM are 25 times more likely to become legally blind than individuals without DM.

Question 8

Which of the following is the hallmark of “proliferative” diabetic retinopathy ?

A	Retinal vascular microaneurysms
B	Blot hemorrhages
C	Neovascularization
D	Cotton wool spots

Question 8 Explanation:

The appearance of neovascularization in response to retinal hypoxia is the hallmark of proliferative diabetic retinopathy

Question 9

Individuals who have had DM for >20 years, what is the probability of detecting nonproliferative retinopathy ?

A	25 %
B	50 %
C	75 %
D	100 %

Question 9 Explanation:

Nonproliferative retinopathy is found in almost all individuals who have had DM for >20 years.

Question 10

The earliest clinical signs of diabetic retinopathy is ?

A	Dot intraretinal hemorrhages
B	Cotton-wool spots
C	Neovascular glaucoma
D	Diabetic macular edema

Question 11

Lesion that occurs early in histopathology of diabetic retinopathy is ?

A	Selective loss of pericytes from retinal capillaries
B	Loss of capillary endothelial cells
C	Proliferation of capillary endothelial cells
D	None of the above

Question 12

Screening for gestational diabetes mellitus is recommended for pregnant women between ?

A	12 & 14 weeks of gestation
B	16 & 20 weeks of gestation
C	24 & 28 weeks of gestation
D	32 & 36 weeks of gestation

Question 12 Explanation:

Current recommendations advise screening for glucose intolerance between weeks 24 and 28 of pregnancy in women with high risk for GDM.

Question 13

During the first 6 to 12 months of improved glycemic control, established diabetic retinopathy ?

A	Improves
B	Remains the same
C	Worsens
D	Any of the above

Question 13 Explanation:

During the first 6 to 12 months of improved glycemic control, established diabetic retinopathy may transiently worsen.

Question 14

In a 24 hour collected urine sample, microalbuminuria is defined as ?

A	10 to 100 mg/day
B	20 to 200 mg/day
C	30 to 300 mg/day
D	40 to 400 mg/day

Question 15

In a spot urine collection, microalbuminuria is defined as ?

A	10 to 100 μg/mg creatinine
B	20 to 200 μg/mg creatinine
C	30 to 299 μg/mg creatinine
D	40 to 400 μg/mg creatinine

Question 15 Explanation:

Microalbuminuria is defined as 30 to 299 mg/day in a 24-hour collection or 30 to 299 μg/mg creatinine in a spot collection.

Question 16

Interventions effective in slowing progression from microalbuminuria to overt nephropathy include all except ?

A	Strict blood pressure control
B	Administration of ACE inhibitors or ARBs
C	Administration of beta blockers
D	Treatment of dyslipidemia

Question 16 Explanation:

Interventions effective in slowing progression from microalbuminuria to overt nephropathy include near normalization of glycemia, strict blood pressure control, administration of ACE inhibitors or ARBs and treatment of dyslipidemia.

Question 17

In type 2 DM, preferred drug for blood pressure control is ?

A	ACE inhibitors
B	ARBs
C	Beta blockers
D	Calcium channel blockers

Question 18

In type 2 DM, preferred drug for blood pressure control is ?

A	Diuretics
B	ARBs
C	Beta blockers
D	Calcium channel blockers

Question 18 Explanation:

Drug-specific benefit in diabetic nephropathy, independent of blood pressure control, has been shown for ACE inhibitors in type 1 DM and ARBs in type 2 DM. ACE inhibitors (in types 1 and 2 DM) and ARBs (in type 2 DM) slow the progression of diabetic renal disease.

Question 19

Leading cause of death in diabetic individuals on dialysis is ?

A	Atherosclerosis
B	Infection
C	Dyselectrolytemia
D	Suicide

Question 19 Explanation:

Atherosclerosis is the leading cause of death in diabetic individuals on dialysis

Question 20

The most common form of diabetic neuropathy is ?

A	Distal symmetric polyneuropathy
B	Diabetic polyradiculopathy
C	Mononeuropathy
D	Mononeuropathy multiplex

Question 20 Explanation:

The most common form of diabetic neuropathy is distal symmetric polyneuropathy

Question 21

Involvement of which of the following cranial nerves is most common in DM ?

A	II
B	III
C	VI
D	VII

Question 21 Explanation:

Involvement of the third cranial nerve is most common in DM and manifests as diplopia.

Question 22

Which of the following antiarrhythmic drug is useful in the treatment of chronic, painful diabetic neuropathy ?

A	Procainamide
B	Mexilitine
C	Adenosine
D	Ibutilide

Question 22 Explanation:

Chronic, painful diabetic neuropathy may respond to tricyclic antidepressants, gabapentin, NSAIDS, mexilitine, phenytoin, carbamazepine and capsaicin cream.

Question 23

Which of the following antiepileptic drug is useful in the treatment of chronic, painful diabetic neuropathy ?

A	Gabapentin
B	Phenytoin
C	Carbamazepine
D	All of the above

Question 23 Explanation:

Chronic, painful diabetic neuropathy may respond to gabapentin, phenytoin & carbamazepine. Chronic, painful diabetic neuropathy may respond to amitriptyline, desipramine, nortriptyline, imipramine or selective serotonin norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors, gabapentin, pregabalin, carbamazepine, lamotrigine.

Question 24

Which of the following drug is useful in orthostatic hypotension due to diabetic autonomic neuropathy ?

A	Midodrine
B	Clonidine
C	Octreotide
D	All of the above

Question 24 Explanation:

Orthostatic hypotension due to diabetic autonomic neuropathy may respond to fludrocortisone, midodrine, clonidine, octreotide and yohimbine.

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See all quizzes of Diabetes Mellitus at here:

1. Which of the following is not a nonvascular chronic complication
of DM ?
A. Macular edema
B. Glaucoma
C. Cataracts
D. Periodontal disease

2. The redox potential is zero for ?
A. Oxygen
B. Hydrogen
C. Nitrogen
D. Helium

3. “AGE” stands for ?
A. Activated glycosylation end products
B. Anti glycosylation end products
C. Advanced glycosylation end products
D. Associated glycosylation end products

4. Intracellular glucose is converted to sorbitol by which enzyme ?
A. Aldose reductase
B. Phosphofructokinase
C. Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase
D. Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase

5. In the Diabetes Control and Complications Trial (DCCT), which of
the following complication showed maximum reduction with
improved glycemic control ?
A. Retinopathy
B. Microalbuminuria
C. Clinical nephropathy
D. Neuropathy

6. Which of the following trial was not for the study of chronic
complications of diabetes mellitus ?
A. Diabetes Control and Complications Trial (DCCT)
B. Tuskegee Study
C. Kumamoto study
D. United Kingdom Prospective Diabetes Study (UKPDS)

7. Individuals with DM are how much more likely to become legally
blind than individuals without DM ?
A. 5 times
B. 10 times
C. 15 times
D. 25 times

8. Which of the following is the hallmark of “proliferative” diabetic
retinopathy ?
A. Retinal vascular microaneurysms
B. Blot hemorrhages
C. Neovascularization
D. Cotton wool spots

9. Individuals who have had DM for >20 years, what is the probability
of detecting nonproliferative retinopathy ?
A. 25 %
B. 50 %
C. 75 %
D. 100 %

10. The earliest clinical signs of diabetic retinopathy is ?
A. Dot intraretinal hemorrhages
B. Cotton-wool spots
C. Neovascular glaucoma
D. Diabetic macular edema
11. Lesion that occurs early in histopathology of diabetic retinopathy is ?
A. Selective loss of pericytes from retinal capillaries
B. Loss of capillary endothelial cells
C. Proliferation of capillary endothelial cells
D. None of the above
12. Screening for gestational diabetes mellitus is recommended for
pregnant women between ?
A. 12 & 14 weeks of gestation
B. 16 & 20 weeks of gestation
C. 24 & 28 weeks of gestation
D. 32 & 36 weeks of gestation

13. During the first 6 to 12 months of improved glycemic control,
established diabetic retinopathy ?
A. Improves
B. Remains the same
C. Worsens
D. Any of the above

14. In a 24 hour collected urine sample, microalbuminuria is defined
as ?
A. 10 to 100 mg/day
B. 20 to 200 mg/day
C. 30 to 300 mg/day
D. 40 to 400 mg/day
15. In a spot urine collection, microalbuminuria is defined as ?
A. 10 to 100 μg/mg creatinine
B. 20 to 200 μg/mg creatinine
C. 30 to 299 μg/mg creatinine
D. 40 to 400 μg/mg creatinine

16. Interventions effective in slowing progression from
microalbuminuria to overt nephropathy include all except ?
A. Strict blood pressure control
B. Administration of ACE inhibitors or ARBs
C. Administration of beta blockers
D. Treatment of dyslipidemia

17. In type 2 DM, preferred drug for blood pressure control is ?
A. ACE inhibitors
B. ARBs
C. Beta blockers
D. Calcium channel blockers
18. In type 2 DM, preferred drug for blood pressure control is ?
A. Diuretics
B. ARBs
C. Beta blockers
D. Calcium channel blockers

19. Leading cause of death in diabetic individuals on dialysis is ?
A. Atherosclerosis
B. Infection
C. Dyselectrolytemia
D. Suicide

20. The most common form of diabetic neuropathy is ?
A. Distal symmetric polyneuropathy
B. Diabetic polyradiculopathy
C. Mononeuropathy
D. Mononeuropathy multiplex

21. Involvement of which of the following cranial nerves is most
common in DM ?
A. II
B. III
C. VI
D. VII

22. Which of the following antiarrhythmic drug is useful in the
treatment of chronic, painful diabetic neuropathy ?
A. Procainamide
B. Mexilitine
C. Adenosine
D. Ibutilide

23. Which of the following antiepileptic drug is useful in the treatment
of chronic, painful diabetic neuropathy ?
A. Gabapentin
B. Phenytoin
C. Carbamazepine
D. All of the above

24. Which of the following drug is useful in orthostatic hypotension
due to diabetic autonomic neuropathy ?
A. Midodrine
B. Clonidine
C. Octreotide
D. All of the above

Diabetes Mellitus

[MCQ] Diabetes Mellitus- Part 5

I. Start the exam by click the “Start” button

Diabetes Mellitus- Part 5

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