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Select the one best response to each question!
All of the following apply to HIV except
| 1. All of the following apply to HIV except a. it possesses an outer envelope. b. it contains an inner core with p24 antigen. c. it contains DNA as its nucleic acid. d. it is a member of the retrovirus family. |
| 2. Which of the following genes is responsible for the coding of reverse transcriptase? a. Env b. Pol c. Gag d. Tat |
| 3. HIV virions bind to host T cells through which receptors? a. CD4 and CD8 b. CD4 and the IL-2 receptor c. CD4 and CXCR4 d. CD8 and CCR2 |
| 4. Antibodies to which of the following viral antigens are usually the first to be detected in HIV infection? a. gp120 b. gp160 c. gp41 d. p24 |
| 5. Which of the following is typical of the latent stage of HIV infection? a. Proviral DNA is attached to cellular DNA. b. Large numbers of viral particles are synthesized. c. A large amount of viral RNA is synthesized. d. Viral particles with no envelope are produced. |
| 6. The decrease in T-cell numbers in HIV-infected individuals is due to a. lysis of host T cells by replicating virus. b. fusion of the T cells to form syncytia. c. killing of the T cells by HIV-specific cytotoxic T cells. d. all of the above. |
| 7. The most common means of HIV transmission worldwide is through a. blood transfusions. b. intimate sexual contact. c. sharing of needles in intravenous drug use. d. transplacental passage of the virus. |
| 8. All of the following are likely immunologic manifestations of HIV infection except a. decreased CD4 T-cell count. b. increased CD8 T-cell count. c. increased response to vaccine antigens. d. increased serum immunoglobulins. |
| 9. The drug zidovudine is an example of a a. nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitor. b. nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor. c. protease inhibitor. d. fusion inhibitor |
| 10. Which of the following methods is used in thirdgeneration ELISA tests for HIV antibody? a. Binding of patient antibody to solid-phase recombinant HIV antigens followed by addition of enzyme-labeled antihuman immunoglobulin b. Binding of patient antibody to solid-phase recombinant HIV antigens, followed by addition of enzyme-labeled HIV-specific antibodies c. Binding of patient antibody to solid-phase recombinant HIV antigens, followed by addition of enzyme-labeled HIV antigens d. Binding of patient antibody to a solid-phase coated with antigens purified from HIV viral lysates, followed by addition of enzyme-labeled antihuman immunoglobulin |
| 11. If a test has a high positive predictive value, which of the following is true? a. There will be no false negatives. b. Most positives are true positives. c. It is not a good screening test. d. The number of true positives will vary with the population. |
| 12. False-negative test results in the ELISA test for HIV antibody may occur because of a. heat inactivation of the serum prior to testing. b. collection of the test sample prior to seroconversion. c. interference by autoantibodies. d. recent exposure to certain vaccines. |
| 13. Which of the following combinations of bands would represent a positive Western blot for HIV antibody? a. p24 and p55 b. p24 and p31 c. gp41 and gp120 d. p31 and p55 |
| 14. Which of the following tests would give the least reliable results in a 2-month-old infant? a. CD4 T-cell count b. ELISA for HIV antibody c. RT-PCR for HIV nucleic acid d. NASBA for HIV nucleic acid |
| 15. The RT-PCR is a highly sensitive method that involves a. direct amplification of HIV RNA. b. amplification of a label attached to HIV RNA. c. amplification of a complementary DNA sequence to a portion of the HIV RNA. d. DNA sequencing of a portion of HIV RNA. |
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