[MCQ] Hypertensive Vascular Disease- Part 3

I. Start the exam by click the “Start” button

Hypertensive Vascular Disease- Part 3

Please wait while the activity loads.
If this activity does not load, try refreshing your browser. Also, this page requires javascript. Please visit using a browser with javascript enabled.

If loading fails, click here to try again

Start

Congratulations - you have completed Hypertensive Vascular Disease- Part 3. You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%. Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%

Your answers are highlighted below.

Question 1

Plasma aldosterone (adult) level in supine position with patient on normal sodium diet normally is ?

A	< 16 ng/dL
B	< 32 ng/dL
C	< 48 ng/dL
D	< 72 ng/dL

Question 2

Plasma aldosterone is suppressed by all except ?

A	Oral NaCl load
B	Fludrocortisone
C	Captopril
D	Spironolactone

Question 2 Explanation:

Aldosterone antagonists, angiotensin receptor antagonists, and ACE inhibitors may increase renin. Aldosterone antagonists may increase aldosterone. IV infusion of isotonic saline, oral NaCl load, fludrocortisone, or captopril suppress aldosterone

Question 3

Which of the following is false about aldosterone-producing adrenal adenoma ?

A	Tumor is almost always unilateral
B	Measures < 3 cm. in diameter
C	Aldosterone biosynthesis more responsive to ACTH
D	None of the above

Question 4

In which of the following conditions, males may present with pseudohermaphroditism and hypertension ?

A	Glucocorticoid-remediable hyperaldosteronism
B	11β-hydroxylase deficiency
C	17α-hydroxylase deficiency
D	11β-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase deficiency

Question 4 Explanation:

With 17-hydroxylase deficiency, synthesis of sex hormones & cortisol is decreased. Consequently, these individuals do not mature sexually. Males may present with pseudohermaphroditism and females with primary amenorrhea and absent secondary sexual characteristics. Because cortisol-induced negative feedback on pituitary ACTH production is diminished, ACTH-stimulated adrenal steroid synthesis proximal to the enzymatic block is increased. Hypertension and hypokalemia are consequences of increased synthesis of mineralocorticoids proximal to the enzymatic block, particularly desoxycorticosterone. Increase

Question 5

“Hypertensive headache” occurs during ?

A	Morning
B	Afternoon
C	Evening
D	Night

Question 6

“Hypertensive headache” is localized to ?

A	Occipital region
B	Occipital region
C	Temporal region
D	Any of the above

Question 6 Explanation:

Characteristically, hypertensive headache occurs in morning & is localized to occipital region.

Question 7

Width of the blood pressure bladder cuff should equal at least what percentage of the arm circumference ?

A	10 %
B	20 %
C	30 %
D	40 %

Question 8

Length of blood pressure bladder cuff bladder should encircle at least what percentage of the arm circumference ?

A	20 %
B	40 %
C	60 %
D	80 %

Question 8 Explanation:

Width of the blood pressure bladder cuff should equal at least 40% of the arm circumference; the length of the cuff bladder should encircle at least 80% of the arm circumference.

Question 9

Blunting of the day-night blood pressure pattern occurs in ?

A	Sleep apnea
B	Autonomic neuropathy
C	African Americans populations
D	All of the ab

Question 9 Explanation:

Attenuated nighttime blood pressure “dip” is associated with increased cardiovascular disease risk. Blunting of day-night blood pressure pattern occurs in sleep apnea, autonomic neuropathy & in African Americans

Question 10

One standard drink contains how many grams of ethanol ?

A	~ 10 grams
B	~ 14 grams
C	~ 18 grams
D	~ 24 grams

Question 10 Explanation:

One standard drink contains ~14 grams of ethanol.

Question 11

DASH trial stands for ?

A	Death and survival in hypertension
B	Diastolic and systolic hypertension
C	Dietary approaches to stop hypertension
D	Duration and severity of hypertension

Question 11 Explanation:

DASH (Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension) tria

Question 12

Supplementation of which of the following may be associated with reduced stroke mortality ?

A	Potassium
B	Calcium
C	Sodium
D	Alcohol

Question 12 Explanation:

Alcohol

Question 13

Which of the following act by inhibiting epithelial sodium channels in the distal nephron ?

A	Thiazides
B	Furosemide
C	Eplerenone
D	Amiloride

Question 13 Explanation:

Potassium-sparing diuretics, amiloride and triamterene, act by inhibiting epithelial sodium channels in the distal nephron. Thiazides inhibit the Na+/Cl– pump in the distal convoluted tubule and hence increase sodium excretion. Loop diuretics inhibit the Na+-K+-2Cl– cotransporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. Eplerenone is an aldosterone antagonist

Question 14

Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors act by which of the following mechanism ?

A	Decrease production of angiotensin II
B	Increase bradykinin levels
C	Reduce sympathetic nervous system activity
D	All of the above

Question 14 Explanation:

RG ACEIs decrease the production of angiotensin II, increase bradykinin levels, and reduce sympathetic nervous system activity.

Question 15

Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARB) provide selective blockade of ?

A	Decrease production of angiotensin
B	Increase bradykinin levels
C	Reduce sympathetic nervous system activity
D	All of the above

Question 16

Which of the following diminishes the adverse effects of diuretics on glucose metabolism ?

A	ACEIs and ARBs
B	Beta blockers
C	Calcium antagonists
D	Alpha antagonists

Question 16 Explanation:

ACEIs and ARBs improve insulin action and ameliorate the adverse effects of diuretics on glucose metabolism.

Question 17

Which of the following reduces the risk of developing diabetes in high-risk hypertensive patients

A	Valsartan
B	Lisinopril
C	Captopril
D	Captopril

Question 17 Explanation:

Valsartan (an ARB) reduces the risk of developing diabetes in high-risk hypertensive patients.

Question 18

Which of the following is a direct renin inhibitor ?

A	Guanfacine
B	Doxazosin
C	Aliskiren
D	Terazosin

Question 18 Explanation:

Aliskiren is an oral, nonpeptide competitive inhibitors of the enzymatic activity of renin.

Question 19

Which of the following about spironolactone is false ?

A	Nonselective aldosterone antagonist
B	Binds to progesterone
C	Binds to androgen receptors
D	None of the above

Question 20

Spironolactone is effective in patients with ?

A	Low-renin essential hypertension
B	Resistant hypertension
C	Primary aldosteronism
D	All of the above

Question 20 Explanation:

Spironolactone is a nonselective aldosterone antagonist that may be used alone or in combination with a thiazide diuretic. It is particularly effective agent in patients with low-renin essential hypertension, resistant hypertension, and primary aldosteronism. Because spironolactone binds to progesterone and androgen receptors, side effects may include gynecomastia, impotence, and menstrual abnormalities.

Question 21

Which of the following is a selective aldosterone antagonist ?

A	Aliskiren
B	Eplerenone
C	Eplerenone
D	Minoxidil

Question 21 Explanation:

Eplerenone is a selective aldosterone antagonist.

Question 22

Which of the following blocks both  receptors and peripheral -adrenergic receptors ?

A	Carvedilol
B	Aliskiren
C	Eplerenone
D	Minoxidil

Question 22 Explanation:

Carvedilol and labetalol block both  receptors and peripheral  -adrenergic receptors.

Question 23

Selective alpha antagonists include all except ?

A	Prazosin
B	Doxazosin
C	Terazosin
D	Phenoxybenzamine

Question 23 Explanation:

Phenoxybenzamine is a nonselective alpha antagonist.

Once you are finished, click the button below. Any items you have not completed will be marked incorrect. Get Results

There are 23 questions to complete.

←

List

→

Return

Shaded items are complete.

1	2	3	4	5
6	7	8	9	10
11	12	13	14	15
16	17	18	19	20
21	22	23	End

Return

See all quizzes of Hypertensive Vascular Disease at here:

Hypertensive Vascular Disease- Part 1 | Hypertensive Vascular Disease- Part 2 |Hypertensive Vascular Disease- Part 3|Hypertensive Vascular Disease- Part4| Hypertensive Vascular Disease- Part 5

1.Plasma aldosterone (adult) level in supine position with patient on normal sodium diet normally is ?
A. < 16 ng/dL
B. < 32 ng/dL
C. < 48 ng/dL
D. < 72 ng/dL
2. Plasma aldosterone is suppressed by all except ?
A. Oral NaCl load
B. Fludrocortisone
C. Captopril
D. Spironolactone

3. Which of the following is false about aldosterone-producing adrenal adenoma ?
A. Tumor is almost always unilateral
B. Measures < 3 cm. in diameter
C. Aldosterone biosynthesis more responsive to ACTH
D. None of the above
4. In which of the following conditions, males may present with pseudohermaphroditism and hypertension ?
A. Glucocorticoid-remediable hyperaldosteronism
B. 11-hydroxylase deficiency
C. 17-hydroxylase deficiency
D. 11-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase deficiency
.
5. “Hypertensive headache” occurs during ?
A. Morning
B. Afternoon
C. Evening
D. Night
6. “Hypertensive headache” is localized to ?
A. Occipital region
B. Frontal region
C. Temporal region
D. Any of the above

7. Width of the blood pressure bladder cuff should equal at least what percentage of the arm circumference ?

A. 10 %
B. 20 %
C. 30 %
D. 40 %
8. Length of blood pressure bladder cuff bladder should encircle at least what percentage of the arm circumference ?
A. 20 %
B. 40 %
C. 60 %
D. 80 %

9. Blunting of the day-night blood pressure pattern occurs in ?
A. Sleep apnea
B. Autonomic neuropathy
C. African Americans populations
D. All of the above

10. One standard drink contains how many grams of ethanol ?
A. ~ 10 grams
B. ~ 14 grams
C. ~ 18 grams
D. ~ 24 grams

11. DASH trial stands for ?
A. Death and survival in hypertension
B. Diastolic and systolic hypertension
C. Dietary approaches to stop hypertension
D. Duration and severity of hypertension

12. Supplementation of which of the following may be associated with reduced stroke mortality ?
A. Potassium
B. Calcium
C. Sodium
D. Alcohol

13. Which of the following act by inhibiting epithelial sodium channels in the distal nephron ?
A. Thiazides

B. Furosemide
C. Eplerenone
D. Amiloride

14. Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors act by which of the following mechanism ?
A. Decrease production of angiotensin II
B. Increase bradykinin levels
C. Reduce sympathetic nervous system activity
D. All of the above

15. Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARB) provide selective blockade of ?
A. AT1 receptors
B. AT2 receptors
C. AT3 receptors
D. AT4 receptors

16. Which of the following diminishes the adverse effects of diuretics on glucose metabolism ?
A. ACEIs and ARBs
B. Beta blockers
C. Calcium antagonists
D. Alpha antagonists

17. Which of the following reduces the risk of developing diabetes in high-risk hypertensive patients
A. Valsartan
B. Lisinopril
C. Captopril
D. Ramipril

18. Which of the following is a direct renin inhibitor ?
A. Guanfacine
B. Doxazosin
C. Aliskiren
D. Terazosin

19. Which of the following about spironolactone is false ?

A. Nonselective aldosterone antagonist
B. Binds to progesterone
C. Binds to androgen receptors
D. None of the above
20. Spironolactone is effective in patients with ?
A. Low-renin essential hypertension
B. Resistant hypertension
C. Primary aldosteronism
D. All of the above

21. Which of the following is a selective aldosterone antagonist ?
A. Aliskiren
B. Eplerenone
C. Candesartan
D. Minoxidil

22. Which of the following blocks both  receptors and peripheral -adrenergic receptors ?
A. Carvedilol
B. Aliskiren
C. Eplerenone
D. Minoxidil

23. Selective alpha antagonists include all except ?
A. Prazosin
B. Doxazosin
C. Terazosin
D. Phenoxybenzamine

Hypertensive Vascular Disease

[MCQ] Hypertensive Vascular Disease- Part 3

I. Start the exam by click the “Start” button

Hypertensive Vascular Disease- Part 3

Share this:

Related

[MCQ] Hypertensive Vascular Disease- Part 2

[MCQ] Hypertensive Vascular Disease- Part 4

You may also like

Leave a Comment Cancel Reply