The quizzes about Chemical Examination of Urine (47 questions)

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The quizzes about Chemical Examination of Urine (47 questions)
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Select the one best response to each question!

Leaving a reagent strip in the specimen for too long will:


1. Leaving a reagent strip in the specimen for too long will:
A. Cause runover between reagent pads
B. Alter the color of the specimen
C. Cause reagents to leach from the pads
D. Not affect the chemical reactions
2. Failure to mix a specimen prior to inserting the reagent strip will primarily affect the:
A. Glucose reading
B. Blood reading
C. Nitrite reading
D. Ph reading
3. Testing a refrigerated specimen that has not warmed to room temperature will adversely affect:
A. Enzymatic reactions
B. Dye-binding reactions
C. The sodium nitroprusside reaction
D. Diazo reactions
4. The reagent strip reaction that requires the longest reaction time is the:
A. Bilirubin
B. pH
C. Leukocyte esterase
D. Glucose
5. Quality control of reagent strips is performed:
A. Using positive and negative controls
B. When results are questionable
C. At least once every 24 hours
D. All of the above
6. All of the following are important to protect the integrity of reagent strips except:
A. Removing the desiccant from the bottle
B. Storing in an opaque bottle
C. Storing at room temperature
D. Resealing the bottle after removing a strip
7. The principle of the reagent strip test for pH is the:
A. Protein error of indicators
B. Greiss reaction
C. Dissociation of a polyelectrolyte
D. Double indicator reaction
8. A urine specimen with a pH of 9.0:
A. Is indicative of metabolic acidosis
B. Should be recollected
C. May contain calcium oxalate crystals
D. Is seen after drinking cranberry juice
9. In the laboratory, a primary consideration associated with pH is:
A. Identification of urinary crystals
B. Monitoring of vegetarian diets
C. Determination of specimen acceptability
D. Both A and C
10. Indicate the source of the following proteinurias by placing a 1 for prerenal, 2 for renal, or 3 for postrenal       in front of the condition.
A. ____Microalbuminuria
B. ____Acute phase reactants
C. ____Pre-eclampsia
D. ____Vaginal inflammation
E. ____Multiple myeloma
F. ____Orthostatic proteinuria
G. ____Prostatitis
11. The principle of the protein error of indicators reaction is that:
A. Protein changes the pH of the urine
B. Albumin accepts hydrogen ions from the indicator
C. The indicator accepts ions for albumin
D. Albumin changes the pH of the urine
12. All of the following will cause false-positive protein reagent strip values except:
A. Proteins other than albumin
B. Highly buffered alkaline urines
C. Delay in removing the reagent strip from the specimen
D. Contamination by quartenary ammonium compounds
13. A patient with a 1 protein reading in the afternoon is asked to submit a first morning specimen. The second specimen also has a 1 protein. This patient is:
A. Positive for orthostatic proteinuria
B. Negative for orthostatic proteinuria
C. Positive for Bence Jones protein
D. Negative for clinical proteinuria
14. Testing for microalbuminuria is valuable for monitoring patients with:
A. Hypertension
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Cardiovascular disease risk
D. All of the above
15. All of the following are true for the Micral-Test for microalbumin except:
A. It is run on first morning specimens
B. It contains an antibody-enzyme conjugate
C. Two blue bands are formed on the strip
D. Unbound antibody attaches to immobilized albumin
16. All of the following are true for the Immunodip test for microalbumin except:
A. Unbound antibody migrates farther than bound antibody
B. Blue latex particles are coated with antibody
C. Bound antibody migrates further than unbound antibody
D. It utilizes an immumochromographic principle
17. The principle of the protein-low reagent pad on the Multistix Pro is the:
A. Binding of albumin to sulphonphtalein dye
B. Immunologic binding of albumin to antibody
C. Reverse protein error of indicators reaction
D. Enzymatic reaction between albumin and dye
18. The principle of the creatinine reagent pad on microalbumin reagent strips is the:
A. Double indicator reaction
B. Diazo reaction
C. Pseudoperoxidase reaction
D. Reduction of a chromogen
19. The purpose of performing an albumin:creatinine ratio is to:
A. Estimate the glomerular filtration rate
B. Correct for hydration in random specimens
C. Avoid interference for alkaline urines
D. Correct for abnormally colored urines
20. A patient with a normal blood glucose and a positive urine glucose should be further checked for:
A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Renal disease
C. Gestational diabetes
D. Pancreatitis
21. The principle of the reagent strip tests for glucose is the:
A. Peroxidase activity of glucose
B. Glucose oxidase reaction
C. Double sequential enzyme reaction
D. Dye-binding of glucose and chromogen
22. All of the following may produce false-negative glucose reactions except:
A. Detergent contamination
B. Ascorbic acid
C. Unpreserved specimens
D. Low urine temperature
23. A positive Clinitest and a negative reagent strip glucose are indicative of:
A. Low levels of glucose
B. Nonglucose reducing substances
C. High levels of glucose
D. Both A and B
24. The primary reason for performing a Clinitest is to:
A. Check for high ascorbic acid levels
B. Confirm a positive reagent strip glucose
C. Check for newborn galactosuria
D. Confirm a negative glucose reading
25. The three intermediate products of fat metabolism include all of the following except:
A. Acetoacetic acid
B. Ketoacetic acid
C. Beta-hydroxybutyric acid
D. Acetone
26. The most significant reagent strip test that is associated with a positive ketone result is:
A. Glucose
B. Protein
C. pH
D. Specific gravity
27. The primary reagent in the reagent strip test for ketones is:
A. Glycine
B. Lactose
C. Sodium hydroxide
D. Sodium nitroprusside
28. Ketonuria may be caused by all of the following except:
A. Bacterial infections
B. Diabetic acidosis
C. Starvation
D. Vomiting
29. Urinalysis on a patient with severe back and abdominal pain is frequently performed to check for:
A. Glucosuria
B. Proteinuria
C. Hematuria
D. Hemoglobinuria
30. Place the appropriate number or numbers in front of each of the following statements. Use both numbers for an answer if needed.
1. Hemoglobinuria
2. Myoglobinuria
A. ____Associated with transfusion reactions
B. ____Clear, red urine and pale yellow plasma
C. ____Clear, red urine and red plasma
D. ____Associated with rhabdomylosis
E. ____Precipitated by ammonium sulfate
F. ____Not precipitated by ammonium sulfate
G. ____Produced hemosiderin granules in urinary sediments
H. ____Associated with acute renal failure
31. The principle of the reagent strip test for blood is based on the:
A. Binding of heme and a chromogenic dye
B. Peroxidase activity of heme
C. Reaction of peroxide and chromogen
D. Diazo activity of heme
32. A speckled pattern on the blood pad of the reagent strip indicates:
A. Hematuria
B. Hemoglobinuria
C. Myoglobinuria
D. All of the above
33. List the following products of hemoglobin degradation in the corrct order by placing numbers 1–4 in front of them.
A. ___Conjugated bilirubin
B. ___Urobilinogen and stercobiligen
C. ___Urobilin
D. ___Unconjugated bilirubin
34. The principle of the reagent strip test for bilirubin is
A. Diazo reaction
B. Ehrlich reaction
C. Greiss reaction
D. Peroxidase reaction
35. An elevated urine bilirubin with a normal urobilinogen is indicative of:
A. Cirrhosis of the liver
B. Hemolytic disease
C. Hepatitis
D. Biliary obstruction
36. The primary cause of a false-negative bilirubin reaction is:
A. Highly pigmented urine
B. Specimen contamination
C. Specimen exposure to light
D. Excess conjugated bilirubin
37. The purpose of the special mat supplied with the Ictotest tablets is that:
A. Bilirubin remains on the surface of the mat.
B. It contains the dye needed to produce color.
C. It removes interfering substances.
D. Bilirubin is absorbed into the mat.
38. The reagent in the Multistix reaction for urobilinogen is:
A. A diazonium salt
B. Tetramethylbenzidine
C. p-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde
D. Hoesch reagent
39. The primary problem with urobilinogen tests using Ehrlich reagent is:
A. Positive reactions with porphobilinogen
B. Lack of sensitivity
C. Positive reactions with Ehrlich reactive substances
D. Both A and C
40. In the Watson-Schwartz differentiation test, the substance(s) not extracted into butanol is/are:
A. Urobilinogen
B. Porphobilinogen
C. Ehrlich reactive substances
D. All of the above
41. The Hoesch test is used to monitor or screen patients for the presence of:
A. Urobilinogen
B. Nitrite
C. Porphobilinogen
D. Leukocyte esterase
42. The reagent strip test for nitrite used the:
A. Greiss reaction
B. Hoesch reaction
C. Peroxidase reaction
D. Pseudoperoxidase reaction
43. All of the following can cause a negative nitrite reading except:
A. Gram-positive bacteria
B. Gram-negative bacteria
C. Random urine specimens
D. Heavy bacterial infections
44. A positive nitrite test and a negative leukocyte esterase test is an indication of a:
A. Dilute random specimen
B. Specimen with lyzed leukocytes
C. Vaginal yeast infection
D. Specimen older than 2 hours
45. All of the following can be detected by the leukocyte esterase reaction except:
A. Neutrophils
B. Eosinophils
C. Lymphocytes
D. Basophils
46. Screening tests for urinary infection comleukocyte esterase test with the test for:
A. pH
B. Nitrite
C. Protein
D. Blood
47. The principle of the leukocyte esterase reagent strip test uses a:
A. Peroxidase reaction
B. Double indicator reaction
C. Diazo reaction
D. Dye-binding technique
48. The principle of the reagent strip test for specific gravity uses the dissociation constant of a/an:
A. Diazonium salt
B. Indicator dye
C. Polyelectrolyte
D. Enzyme substrate
49. A specific gravity of 1.030 would produce the reagent strip color:
A. Blue
B. Green
C. Yellow
D. Red
50. Reagent strip–specific gravity readings are affected by:
A. Glucose
B. Radiographic dye
C. Alkaline urine
D. All of the above

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