I. Start the exam by click the “Start” button
Disorders of granulocytes & monocytes- Part 3
Disorders of granulocytes & monocytes part 1 | Disorders of granulocytes & monocytes part 2 | Disorders of granulocytes & monocytes part 3
II. Preview all questions below
1.Monocytopenia occurs with ?
A. Acute infections
B. Glucocorticoid therapy
C. Aplastic anemia
D. All of the above
2. Monocytopenia occurs with ?
A. Hairy cell leukemia
B. Acute myeloid leukemia
C. Stress
D. All of the above
3. Monocytosis is associated with ?
A. Tuberculosis
B. Brucellosis
C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis
D. All of the above
4. Monocytosis is associated with ?
A. Malaria
B. Visceral leishmaniasis (kala azar)
C. Hemolytic anemias
D. All of the above
5. “TRAPS” stands for ?
A. Tumour associated periodic syndromes
B. TNF- receptor associated periodic syndromes
C. Thyroid associated periodic syndromes
D. T receptor associated periodic syndromes
6. Familial Mediterranean fever due to mutations in PYRIN is due to abnormal regulation of ?
A. IL-1
B. IL-8
C. IL-12
D. IL-18
7. Mutations in cold-induced autoinflammatory syndrome 1 (CIAS1) lead to ?
A. Neonatal-onset multisystem autoinflammatory disease
B. Familial cold urticaria
C. Muckle-Wells syndrome
D. All of the above
8. Mutations in CD2BP1 cause which of the following ?
A. PAPA syndrome
B. Muckle-Wells syndrome
C. Familial cold urticaria
D. Familial Mediterranean fever
9. Which of the following is a TNF- antagonist ?
A. Infliximab
B. Adalimumab
C. Etanercept
D. All of the above
10. Specific chemokine expressed by eosinophils is ?
A. Eotaxin
B. Eosinotaxin
C. Eosinophilotaxin
D. All of the above
11. Which of the following is false about eosinophils ?
A. Shorter half life than neutrophils
B. Eosinophils can recirculate
C. During most infections, eosinophils are not important
D. Central role in defense against invasive helminthic infections
12. Which of the following is false about eosinophil granule ?
A. Arginine-rich protein content
B. Histaminase activity
C. Contain eosinophil peroxidase
D. None of the above
13. Charcot-Leyden crystal protein in eosinophil cytoplasm is ?
A. Hyaluronidase
B. Phospholipase
C. Lysophospholipase
D. Immunoglobulin E
14. Eosinophilia refers to how many eosinophils per microliter of blood ?
A. > 200
B. > 300
C. > 400
D. > 500
15. Eosinophilia is due to allergic reaction which of the following drugs ?
A. Iodides
B. Aspirin
C. Nitrofurantoin
D. All of the above
16. Eosinophilia is associated with which of the following diseases ?
A. Serum sickness
B. Eczema
C. Pemphigus
D. All of the above
17. Eosinophilia is associated with which of the following malignancies ?
A. Cancer pancreas
B. Cancer ovary
C. Cancer uterus
D. All of the above
18. Which of the following is the dominant eosinophil growth factor ?
A. IL-1
B. IL-3
C. IL-5
D. All of the above
19. Which of the following is false about eosinophilia-myalgia syndrome ?
A. Eosinophil count > 1000/µL
B. Caused by ingesting contaminants in L-tryptophan
containing products
C. Responds to glucocorticoids
D. None of the above
20. Which of the following is an adverse effect of eosinopenia ?
A. Cardiac arrhythmias
B. Myopathy
C. Pulmonary fibrosis
D. None of the above
21. Which of the following is false about hyperimmunoglobulin E–recurrent infection (HIE) syndrome ?
A. Also called Job’s syndrome
B. ‘Cold’ skin abscesses
C. Kyphoscoliosis
D. Obstructive lung disease
22. Which of the following is performed to assess bone marrow reserves ?
A. Steroid challenge test
B. Epinephrine challenge test
C. Endotoxin challenge test
D. All of the above
23. In vivo assessment of inflammation is done by ?
A. Rebuck skin window test
B. Nitroblue tetrazolium (NBT) dye test
C. Dihydrorhodamine (DHR) oxidation test
D. All of the above
24. Which of the following drugs is useful to restore myelopoiesis in neutropenia due to impaired production ?
A. Androgens
B. Glucocorticoids
C. Lithium
D. All of the above