[MCQs] Blood Coagulation Quiz – Part 2 (25 test)

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1. Using the Lee-White method for whole blood clotting, what should be done to tube number one after tube number two’s blood has clotted for 30 seconds?

1. Place it straight up for no blood to flow.
2. Tilt it until no flow blood is observed.
3. Tilt it upside down for blood to flow.
4. Gently tilt it upward.

2. The clot retraction is normal in hemophilia because of:

1. A reduced number of platelets.
2. A normal number of platelets.
3. Increased prothrombin activity.
4. The presence of calcium.

3. To measure clot retraction, we can use tubes previously used to determine:

1. Coagulation time.
2. Prothrombin time.
3. Prothrombin consumption time.
4. Thromboplastin generation time.

4. The tourniquet test is positive in:

1. Purpuras.
2. Hemophilia.
3. Polycythemia.
4. Agranulocytosis.

5. The partial thromboplastin time cannot be used to reveal a deficiency of:

1. Factors V or X.
2. Factors XI or XII.
3. Prothrombin or fibrinogen.
4. Factor VII or platelet factor 3.

6. Which of the following values for the activated partial thromboplastin time is normal?

1. 30 seconds.
2. 50 seconds.
3. 1 minute, 10 seconds.
4. 1 minute, 30 seconds.

7. The anticoagulant used in preparing the patient’s plasma for the one-stage prothrombin time is:

1. 0.2 ml of EDTA.
2. 0.5 ml of 3.8 percent sodium citrate.
3. 0.5 ml of 1.34 percent sodium citrate.
4. 0.1 ml of 5 percent potassium oxalate.

8. The prothrombin time is sensitive to a deficiency of factor:

1. VII.
2. VIII
3. IX.
4. XI.

9. A prothrombin consumption time of less than 20 seconds indicates a deficiency in:

1. Fibrinogen.
2. Prothrombin.
3. Factor V, VII, or X.
4. Platelet and factors VIII, IX, XI, or XII.

10. What is the most important difference between the procedures for the one-stage prothrombin time and the prothrombin consumption time?

1. Sensitivity.
2. Sources of error.
3. Blood fraction tested.

11. Deficiencies of which two factors cannot be distinguished from each other by using the thromboplastin generation time, the prothrombin time, and the partial thromboplastin time?

1. V and VII.
2. VIII and IX.
3. X and XI.
4. XI and XII.

12. Which of the following is NOT used to determine the thrombin time?

1. Patient’s plasma.
2. Thrombin solution.
3. Thromboplastin reagent.
4. A 37°C water bath.

13. The thrombin time is sensitive to a deficiency of:

1. Factor V.
2. Factor VII.
3. Fibrinogen.
4. Prothrombin.

14. Which of the following plasma concentrations of fibrinogen falls in the normal range?

1. 50 mg/dl.
2. 100 mg/dl.
3. 300 mg/dl.
4. 500 mg/dl.

15. The plasma recalcification time is used in which of the following?

1. Coagulation time.
2. Thrombin time.
3. Detection of factor XIII deficiency.
4. Detection of a circulating anticoagulant.

16. If a clot lyses within 3 hours after being placed in 5M urea, which factor is deficient?

1. Fibrin.
2. Platelets.
3. Factor VIII.
4. Factor XIII.

17. In the Rees-Ecker platelet count, what is the platelet count if a total of 100 platelets are counted in the two center 1-sq mm areas?

1. 50,000 per cu mm.
2. 100,000 per cu mm.
3. 150,000 per cu mm.
4. 200,000 per cu mm.

18. During the microscopy phase of the platelet count, what is the appearance of the platelets in the counting chamber after the blood has been diluted with ammonium oxalate?

1. Round or oval.
2. Pink.
3. Purple.
4. Or even black under a phase condenser.
5. All of the above.
6. None of the above.

19. Once the diluted blood has been left to stand for 15 to 20 minutes, what method is used to count the platelets and what are the results multiplied by?

1. Count the platelets in all 25 squares of the area normally used for the RBCs and then multiply those results by 1,000.
2. Count the platelets in 6 squares of the area normally used for the WBCs and then multiply those results by 1,000.
3. Count the platelets and then multiply those results by 2,000.
4. Count the platelets in all 40 squares of the area normally used for the RBCs and then multiply those results by 500.

20. What other items could be used to precipitate macroglobulins besides using distilled water?

1. Oxalated or heparinized plasma or calcium dioxide.
2. Oxalated, citrated, or heparinized plasma.
3. Cresyl blue, citrated, or heparinized plasma.
4. Oxalated, citrated, or heparinized plasma or formaldehyde.

21. When interpretating the results of the macroglobulin distilled water screening test, what do you observe?

1. The behavior of the drop of serum or plasma sinking in the water and the modifications of color of the solution.
2. The behavior of the drop of serum or plasma remaining stationary in the water and the modifications of color of the solution.
3. The behavior of the drop of serum or plasma rising in the water and the modifications of color of the solution.
4. The behavior of the drop of serum or plasma sinking in the water and the retention of the color of the solution.

22. What confirms that serum or plasma tests positive when incubated at 4°C during the cryoglobulin screening test?

1. If the serum or plasma turns a bright green color upon returning to a temperature of 37^oC, then the test is confirmed.
2. The test is confirmed if the serum or plasma is brought back to a temperature of 37°C and its appearance returns to normal.
3. If the serum or plasma turns a dull yellow color upon returning to a temperature of 37^oC, then the test is confirmed.
4. The test is confirmed if the serum or plasma is brought back to a temperature of 44°C and its appearance returns to normal.

23. What is a range of values for the fibrin/frininogen degredation products?

1. Normal is above 10 ug/ml.
2. DIC levels of FDP are below 8 ug/ml.
3. Severe cases exceed 40 ug/ml.
4. Normal levels are at 10ug/ml.

24. In performing a factor V assay, what percentage of dilution should the second tube be with 0.01 ml of imidazole buffered saline?

1. 100
2. 60
3. 50
4. 25

25. Which factors are analyzed using the factor VIII assay procedure?

1. Factors II and III.
2. Factors V, VI, and VII.
3. Factors I and IX.
4. Factors VIII, IX, XI, and XII.