[MCQs] Transfusion Biology and Therapy- Part 2

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Transfusion Biology and Therapy- Part 2

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Question 1

Which of the following is not a RBC blood group system ?

A	Lewis
B	Smith
C	Kell
D	Duffy

Question 1 Explanation:

RBC blood group systems are Rh (D, C/c, E/e), Lewis (Lea, Leb), Kell (K/k), Duffy (Fya/Fyb), Kidd (Jka/Jkb), I/i and MNSsU

Question 2

The Lewis gene is located on ?

A	Chromosome 10
B	Chromosome 12
C	Chromosome 15
D	Chromosome 19

Question 2 Explanation:

Lewis gene product is a fucosyl transferase and maps to chromosome 19.

Question 3

Which of the following statements about antibodies to Lewis antigens is false ?

A	Usually IgM type
B	Can cross placenta
C	Cause incompatibility during pretransfusion screening
D	None of the above

Question 3 Explanation:

G Lewis antigens cannot cross placenta

Question 4

Paroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuria (PCH) is related to ?

A	Lewis system
B	P system
C	MNSsU system
D	I system

Question 4 Explanation:

In PCH, autoantibody with biphasic properties (Donath-Landsteiner antibodies) to P is produced that binds to RBCs in cold & fixes complement upon warming.

Question 5

Which of the following antigen is the cellular receptor for Plasmodium vivax ?

A	Lewis antigen
B	Kidd antigen
C	P antigen
D	Duffy antigen

Question 5 Explanation:

Duffy antigens serve as receptors for Plasmodium vivax. >70% of persons in malaria-endemic areas lack these antigens.

Question 6

In Plasmodium falciparum infection, which of the following microbial ligand interacts with host receptor Glycophorin A ?

A	Erythrocyte-binding protein 165 (EBA-165)
B	Erythrocyte-binding protein 175 (EBA-175)
C	Erythrocyte-binding protein 185 (EBA-185)
D	Erythrocyte-binding protein 195 (EBA-195)

Question 7

Which of the following antigen is the cellular receptor of parvovirus B19 ?

A	Lewis antigen
B	Kidd antigen
C	P antigen
D	Duffy antigen

Question 7 Explanation:

The P antigen is the cellular receptor of parvovirus B19.

Question 8

Which of the following gene is present on the X chromosome ?

A	AB
B	Rh
C	Kell
D	Lewis

Question 8 Explanation:

Kell precursor protein is controlled by a gene on X.

Question 9

Virtually every donor is incompatible because nearly all persons express ?

A	M
B	N
C	S
D	U

Question 9 Explanation:

Anti-U antibodies are rare but problematic. Virtually every donor is incompatible because nearly all persons express U.

Question 10

After ABO and Rh systems, which of the following RBC blood group system is most immunogenic ?

A	Lewis
B	MNSsU
C	Kell
D	Duffy

Question 10 Explanation:

The immunogenicity of Kell is third behind the ABO and Rh systems.

Question 11

McLeod syndrome is related to which of the following blood group antigens ?

A	Lewis
B	Kidd
C	Kel
D	Duffy

Question 11 Explanation:

McLeod syndrome is due to absence of Kell precursor protein that leads to acanthocytosis, shortened RBC survival & progressive form of muscular dystrophy that includes cardiac defects.

Question 12

Collection of multiple units of platelets from a single donor is called ?

A	Thrombopheresis technology
B	Hyperpheresis technology
C	Neopheresis technology
D	Apheresis technology

Question 12 Explanation:

Collection of multiple units of platelets from a single donor is done by Apheresis technology

Question 13

Which of the following is not a processed component of whole blood ?

A	Packed RBC (PRBC)
B	Platelets
C	Heat precipitate
D	Cryoprecipitate

Question 13 Explanation:

Blood products intended for transfusion are routinely collected as whole blood (450 mL) in various anticoagulants. Most donated blood is processed into following components - PRBCs, platelets, and fresh-frozen plasma (FFP) or cryoprecipitate. By slow centrifugation, whole blood is first separated into PRBCs & platelet-rich plasma (PRP). Platelet-rich plasma is then centrifuged at high speed to yield one unit of random donor (RD) platelets & one unit of FFP. Cryoprecipitate is produced by thawing FFP to precipitate the plasma proteins, then separated by centrifugation

Question 14

Single-donor apheresis platelets (SDAP) is equivalent to how many units of random donor (RD) platelets ?

A	2
B	4
C	6
D	8

Question 14 Explanation:

Single-donor apheresis platelets (SDAP) contain platelets equivalent to ~6 units of random donor (RD) platelets

Question 15

Threshold for prophylactic platelet transfusion In patients without fever or infections is ?

A	5,000 / µL
B	10,000 / µL
C	25,000 / µL
D	50,000 / µL

Question 15 Explanation:

Threshold for prophylactic platelet transfusion in patients without fever or infections is 10000/ µL, 5,000/µL for those with fever or infections & 50000/µL for those undergoing invasive procedures

Question 16

Refractoriness to rise in post-transfusion platelet counts is investigated by ?

A	Anti-HLA antibodies in recipient’s serum
B	Anti-Jk antibodies in recipient’s serum
C	Anti-U antibodies in recipient’s serum
D	Anti-I autoantibodies in recipient’s serum

Question 16 Explanation:

Refractoriness to rise in post transfusion platelet counts is investigated by detecting anti-HLA antibodies in the recipient’s serum.

Question 17

Fresh-Frozen Plasma (FFP) contains all except ?

A	Fibrinogen
B	Prothrombin
C	Antithrombin
D	Proteins C and S

Question 17 Explanation:

FFP contains stable coagulation factors and plasma proteins like fibrinogen, antithrombin, albumin, and proteins C and S

Question 18

Cryoprecipitate is a source of ?

A	Fibrinogen
B	Factor VIII
C	von Willebrand factor (vWF)
D	All of the above

Question 18 Explanation:

Cryoprecipitate is a source of fibrinogen, factor VIII & von Willebrand factor (vWF)

Question 19

Each unit of cryoprecipitate contains how much of factor VIII ?

A	~ 20 units
B	~ 80 units
C	~ 200 units
D	~ 800 units

Question 19 Explanation:

Each unit of cryoprecipitate contains ~80 units of factor VIII

Question 20

Infectious agents rarely associated with transfusion include ?

A	West Nile virus
B	Hepatitis A virus
C	Treponema pallidum
D	All of the above

Question 20 Explanation:

Infectious agents rarely associated with transfusion include West Nile virus, hepatitis A virus, parvovirus B-19, Babesia microti (babesiosis), Borrelia burgdorferi (Lyme disease), Anaplasma phagocytophilum (human granulocytic ehrlichiosis), Trypanosoma cruzi (Chagas disease), Treponema pallidum, and human herpesvirus-8.

Question 21

Laboratory evaluation for posttransfusion hemolysis includes ?

A	Haptoglobin
B	Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)
C	Indirect bilirubin
D	All of the above

Question 21 Explanation:

Laboratory evaluation for posttransfusion hemolysis includes the measurement of serum haptoglobin, lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), and indirect bilirubin levels.

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II. See all quizzes of the Transfusion Biology and Therapy at here:

Transfusion Biology and Therapy- Part 1 |Transfusion Biology and Therapy- Part 2 |Transfusion Biology and Therapy- Part 3

1.Which of the following is not a RBC blood group system ?
A. Lewis
B. Smith
C. Kell
D. Duffy

2. The Lewis gene is located on ?
A. Chromosome 10

B. Chromosome 12
C. Chromosome 15
D. Chromosome 19

3. Which of the following statements about antibodies to Lewis antigens is false ?
A. Usually IgM type
B. Can cross placenta
C. Cause incompatibility during pretransfusion screening
D. None of the above

4. Paroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuria (PCH) is related to ?
A. Lewis system
B. P system
C. MNSsU system
D. I system

5. Which of the following antigen is the cellular receptor for Plasmodium vivax ?
A. Lewis antigen
B. Kidd antigen
C. P antigen
D. Duffy antigen

6. In Plasmodium falciparum infection, which of the following microbial ligand interacts with host receptor Glycophorin A ?
A. Erythrocyte-binding protein 165 (EBA-165)
B. Erythrocyte-binding protein 175 (EBA-175)
C. Erythrocyte-binding protein 185 (EBA-185)
D. Erythrocyte-binding protein 195 (EBA-195)
7. Which of the following antigen is the cellular receptor of parvovirus B19 ?
A. Lewis antigen
B. Kidd antigen
C. P antigen
D. Duffy antigen
.
8. Which of the following gene is present on the X chromosome ?
A. AB
B. Rh

C. Kell
D. Lewis

9. Virtually every donor is incompatible because nearly all persons express ?
A. M
B. N
C. S
D. U

10. After ABO and Rh systems, which of the following RBC blood group system is most immunogenic ?
A. Lewis
B. MNSsU
C. Kell
D. Duffy

11. McLeod syndrome is related to which of the following blood group antigens ?
A. Lewis
B. Kidd
C. Kell
D. Duffy

12. Collection of multiple units of platelets from a single donor is called ?
A. Thrombopheresis technology
B. Hyperpheresis technology
C. Neopheresis technology
D. Apheresis technology

13. Which of the following is not a processed component of whole blood ?
A. Packed RBC (PRBC)
B. Platelets
C. Heat precipitate
D. Cryoprecipitate

14. Single-donor apheresis platelets (SDAP) is equivalent to how many units of random donor (RD) platelets ?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8

15. Threshold for prophylactic platelet transfusion In patients without fever or infections is ?
A. 5,000 / µL
B. 10,000 / µL
C. 25,000 / µL
D. 50,000 / µL

16. Refractoriness to rise in post-transfusion platelet counts is investigated by ?
A. Anti-HLA antibodies in recipient’s serum
B. Anti-Jk antibodies in recipient’s serum
C. Anti-U antibodies in recipient’s serum
D. Anti-I autoantibodies in recipient’s serum

17. Fresh-Frozen Plasma (FFP) contains all except ?
A. Fibrinogen
B. Prothrombin
C. Antithrombin
D. Proteins C and S

18. Cryoprecipitate is a source of ?
A. Fibrinogen
B. Factor VIII
C. von Willebrand factor (vWF)
D. All of the above

19. Each unit of cryoprecipitate contains how much of factor VIII ?
A. ~ 20 units
B. ~ 80 units
C. ~ 200 units
D. ~ 800 units

20. Infectious agents rarely associated with transfusion include ?
A. West Nile virus
B. Hepatitis A virus
C. Treponema pallidum
D. All of the above

21. Laboratory evaluation for posttransfusion hemolysis includes ?

A. Haptoglobin
B. Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)
C. Indirect bilirubin
D. All of the above

Transfusion Biology and Therapy

[MCQs] Transfusion Biology and Therapy- Part 2

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Transfusion Biology and Therapy- Part 2

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